MENU

Where the world comes to study the Bible

Do Christians Have Peace with God? A Brief Examination of the Textual Problem in Romans 5:1

Related Media

“Therefore, since we have been declared righteous by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ…” —NET Bible

Like virtually all verses, Romans 5:1 can be variously translated. But apart from some minor tweaking—for example, “Since we have been justified” vs. “Having been justified” and the like—there is one substantive variation in how this verse has been translation. The main verb “we have” involves a textual variant, “let us have.” At issue is not two different translations of the same word, but two different words—or, rather, two different forms of the same Greek word. The difference in spelling is one letter (either an omicron or an omega—that is, either a short ‘o’ [o] or a long ‘o’ [ω]), but the difference in pronunciation, as far as we can tell, was nil in the first century AD.1 This is not to say the difference in meaning was nil! Spelled with an omicron, the verb is in the indicative mood—“we have peace”; spelled with the omega, the verb is in the subjunctive mood—“let us have peace.”

One can easily see how such a textual problem could come into existence. A scribe is listening while someone else is reading the manuscript to him; since the two words would be pronounced virtually identically, he has to make a choice. The question is: Which one is the original reading? And how can we know?

This particular problem requires a bit of detective work, along with some speculative historical reconstruction (which, however, we will reserve for the end of the discussion). Although some might get nervous about such an endeavor because its results are less than certain, it is important to keep in mind that to refrain from historical reconstruction is to leave a matter as something of a mystery. Often, the options left to us, when trying to reconstruct history, are as follows: (a) X is what we think happened, (b) Y is what we think happened; or (c) we don’t want to think. Certainly, there are times when it is neither prudent nor helpful to attempt a historical reconstruction. But in the case of solving textual problems, such an attempt often involves only a small pool of viable options. And though conclusions from such will by their nature be less than certain, this does not make them certainly untrue.

With this in mind, we now approach the problem. (Some of our discussion will be rather technical, but for those who have some training in Greek and textual criticism, the technical information should be valuable.) A number of important witnesses have the subjunctive ἔχωμεν (“let us have”) for ἔχομεν (“we have”) in v. 1. Included in the subjunctive’s support are א* A B* C D K L 33 1739* lat bo and many other witnesses. But the indicative is not without its supporters: א1 B2 F G P Ψ 0220vid 1241 1506 1739c 1881 2464 and many other witnesses. If the problem were to be solved on an external basis only, the subjunctive would be given the palm. Clearly, the “A” rating (for the indicative!) in the UBS4 is overly generous.

However, the indicative is probably correct. First, the earliest witness to Rom 5:1 has the indicative (0220). Although given a probable vote in this direction (“vid”) by the editors of the standard critical texts, this is due to the fact that the fragment is shorn right in the middle of the letter in question. An examination of the manuscript, with attention to how the scribe shaped his omicrons and omegas, indicates that the letter could only be an omicron. Second, the first set of correctors is usually of equal importance with the original hand. This is because the first corrector would have usually been the same scribe or someone else in the scriptorium, looking over the MS before it was sold. He would examine it against its exemplar and make corrections, often if not usually in the direction of that exemplar. This is not always the case, of course. But in light of the fact that the earliest witness to this textual problem had the omicron and that אis in dispute suggests that in this case we should probably listen to the voice of the corrector. Hence, א1 should be given equal value with א*. Third, there is a good cross-section of witnesses for the indicative: Alexandrian (in 0220, א1 1241 1506 1881 et alii), Western (in F G), and Byzantine (noted in the Nestle text as pm—that is, the Byzantine text is split, half reading for the indicative and half reading for the subjunctive). Thus, although the external evidence is strongly in favor of the subjunctive, the indicative is represented well enough that its ancestry could easily go back to the original.

Turning to the internal evidence, the indicative gains much ground. First, the variant was more than likely produced via an error of hearing (since, as we mentioned earlier, omicron and omega were pronounced alike in ancient Greek). But it is doubtful that such was produced by early scribes in scriptoria. This is due to two things: (1) In the earliest period of copying, most manuscripts were not done professionally in a scriptorium. Rather, they were copied by individuals who simply wanted a copy of the scriptures. Thus, presumably they would be done predominantly by sight. Since both readings evidently existed at the very earliest stages, the variant was evidently not created in a scriptorium. (2) Even the later Christian scriptoria do not show nearly as much evidence for errors of hearing as is generally supposed. That is, they do not suggest an error of hearing between the lector and scribe (although of course scribes would read to themselves). Exploitations of various scriptoria by Lake, Blake, New and others show that the extant manuscripts were not directly related to each other. This means that each scribe apparently worked at a desk, with an exemplar MS in front of him, rather than in a ‘classroom’ listening to the scripture being read.

So what is to account for the error of hearing? Evidently it was produced when Paul’s amanuensis or secretary (in this case, Tertius—cf. Rom 16:22) misheard what the author, Paul, had said. Confirmation of this is the fact that even in classical Greek omicron and omega were pronounced alike. Thus, unlike many other so-called errors of hearing which could only have occurred in later Greek (because the phonological system was evolving), this instance looks to be at the earliest stage of development. This, of course, does not indicate which reading was original—just that an error of hearing produced one of them.

In light of the indecisiveness of the transcriptional evidence (what a scribe would be likely to have produced), intrinsic evidence (what an author would be likely to have written) could play a much larger role. This is indeed the case here. First, the indicative fits well with the overall argument of the book to this point. Up until now, Paul has been establishing the “indicatives of the faith.” There is only one imperative (used rhetorically) and only one hortatory subjunctive—the “let us” exhortations—up till this point (and this in a diatribal quotation), while from ch. 6 on there are sixty-one imperatives and seven hortatory subjunctives. Clearly, an exhortation would be out of place in ch. 5. Second, Paul presupposes that the audience has peace with God (via reconciliation) in 5:10. This seems to assume the indicative in v. 1. Third, as Cranfield notes, “it would surely be strange for Paul, in such a carefully argued writing as this, to exhort his readers to enjoy or to guard a peace which he has not yet explicitly shown to be possessed by them” (Romans [ICC] 1.257). Fourth, the notion that εἰρήνην ἔχωμεν can even naturally mean “enjoy peace” is problematic—yet this is the meaning given to the subjunctive by virtually all who consider the subjunctive to be original. This point is elaborated on below.

The subjunctive here has often been translated something like, “Let us enjoy the peace that we already have.” Only rarely in the NT does the verb mean “enjoy” (cf. Heb 11:25), and it probably never has this as a primary force in the subjunctive. Thus, if the subjunctive were original, it probably would mean “let us come to have peace with God,” but this notion is entirely foreign to the context, particularly to the fact that justification has already been applied. As for the rest of the NT, the subjunctive of ἔχω occurs 44 times. John 10:10 comes close to the idea of “enjoy,” but the connotation of enjoyment is not in the verb but in περισσόν (“abundantly”). Note also John 16:33 (εἰρήνην ἔχητε [“you might have (enjoy?) peace”]), but the parallel in the second part of the verse does not help (ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ θλῖψιν ἔχετε [“in the world you have tribulation”), for otherwise Jesus would be saying that his disciples “enjoy tribulation”! Likewise, John 17:13; 2 Cor 1:15; 1 John 1:3 have similar glitches. Elsewhere the subjunctive (even present subjunctive) nowhere seems to suggest the enjoyment of something already possessed. For example, in John 5:40, Jesus in speaking to unbelievers (note v 38) says, “You do not want to come to me that you might have (ἔχητε) life.” This cannot mean “that you might enjoy the life you already have,” for then Jesus would not be offering life absolutely, but only the enjoyment of it (a contradiction of what he says in John 10:10, where both life and the enjoyment of it are granted by him)! Thus, if enjoyment is part of the connotation, so is acquiring it. (Compare further Matt 17:20; 19:16; 21:38; John 3:16; 6:40; 13:35; Rom 1:13; 15:4; 1 Cor 13:1-3; 2 Cor 8:12; Eph 4:28; Heb 6:18; Jas 2:14; 1 John 2:28.)

The point of the preceding paragraph is simply this: if the subjunctive ἔχωμεν is what Paul wrote in Romans 5:1, then the meaning almost certainly would be “Since we have been justified by faith, let us acquire so as to enjoy peace with God.” To my knowledge, no commentator who takes the subjunctive to be original would argue that this is the meaning; yet, on a linguistic basis, there seems to be no easy way around this.

In summary, although the external evidence is stronger in support of the subjunctive, the internal evidence points to the indicative. In conclusion, it might be helpful (finally) to attempt something of a historical reconstruction. Although not necessary to come to a decision about the textual problem, one may nevertheless legitimately ask, “How could the subjunctive end up having such overwhelming external support?”

Our suggestion, although speculative, fits the data well.2 Tertius, Paul’s amanuensis, may have anticipated Paul altering his course at the beginning of chapter 5. Paul’s characteristic οὖν (“therefore”) is often used to gather up the preceding indicatives and use them as the basis for action. It would have been a natural thing to anticipate after the phrase, “therefore, having been justified by faith,” some sort of command. At this juncture, Tertius naturally heard ἔχωμεν. But the letter did not go out that way. Paul’s custom was to look over his letters before sending them on to the churches. He would have corrected the subjunctive before the manuscript was sent.3 Once it arrived in Rome, the Christians there would have made copies and sent them on to other churches. Each church apparently had its own practices: some would keep the original and send copies; others would keep a copy and send the original for copying. In the process, it is probable that the original was copied frequently, but that scribes did not realize that the correction at 5:1 was the author’s. Hence, they would retain the subjunctive. In this instance, the original seems to have been copied fairly extensively without the copyist recognizing that is was Paul who corrected Tertius’ error (how could they discern his handwriting from just one letter, especially if that letter was an ‘o’?). Thus, most copyists would naturally retain the subjunctive, thinking that Paul’s omicron belonged to an overzealous scribe, not the author. But the fact that 0220 (the earliest manuscript for Rom 5:1) has the indicative suggests that it may have come from one of the early copies which Tertius was able (at least indirectly) to comment on, to the effect that the indicative was correct. Obviously, this is quite speculative. But it fits the known facts of what churches and scribes did. As a final note, it should be mentioned that the canon of the harder reading is nullified when one of the readings was patently an unintentional creation. Thus, although the subjunctive is the harder reading, since it can easily be explained as arising unintentionally, this canon cannot be applied with conviction in this instance.

Epilogue

Do Christians have peace with God? The answer is an emphatic ‘yes’! And why do we? Because we have been declared righteous by faith. The implications of this for the Christian life are vast: We ought not to wait around for the other shoe to drop, thinking that the Almighty is sitting on his throne, just waiting to pounce on us! The great truth of the gospel is not that at the moment when we embraced Christ as our Savior we were completely changed, but rather, that at that moment we were completely forgiven. And because of that forgiveness, we now have peace with God—a peace that can never be taken away. Further, as Paul goes on to elaborate in Romans 5-8, because we have this peace with God, we now can grow in grace. In other words, since we have been completely forgiven, we now have the potential to be changed into the likeness of God’s Son.


1Most teachers of Koine Greek make a distinction between omicron and omega in pronunciation, viz., omicron is a short ‘o’ as in ‘rot’ while omega is a long ‘o’ as in ‘rote.’ Classical Greek teachers, on the other hand, generally make no distinction in pronunciation. Most scholars are agreed that in the first Christian century there was little if any difference in the pronunciation of the two letters. (Thus, the Koine pronunciation may be somewhat artificial, owing more to pedagogical/phonetic causes than historical.)

2Indeed, an embryonic form of this suggestion is already mentioned by Metzger in his Textual Commentary; he suggests that Tertius created the subjunctive reading, but leaves it at that.

3Note that in 2 Thess 3:17 he indicates that at the end of all his letters he takes the pen from the amanuensis and writes a note to the readers (sometimes with his name attached, sometimes not). The purpose of such a gesture was to show that such letters were authentic and therefore authoritative. If so, then Paul was also taking responsibility for the contents and, as such, must surely have read the contents and made corrections before the document was sent out.

Related Topics: Comfort, Soteriology (Salvation), Textual Criticism, Theology Proper (God)

Junia Among the Apostles: The Double Identification Problem in Romans 16:7

Related Media

In Rom 16:7 Paul says, “Greet Andronicus and Junia(s), my compatriots and my fellow prisoners. They are well known to [or prominent among] the apostles, and they were in Christ before me.” There are two major interpretive problems in this verse, both of which involve the identification of Junia(s). (a) Is Junia(s) a man’s name or a woman’s name? (b) What is this individual’s relation to the apostles?

Is “Junia(s)” Male or Female?

If ᾿Ιουνιαν should have the circumflex over the ultima ( ᾿Ιουνιᾶν) then it is a man’s name; if it should have the acute accent over the penult ( ᾿Ιουνίαν) then it is a woman’s name. For help, we need to look in several places. First, we should consider the accents on the Greek manuscripts. This will be of limited value since they were not added until the ninth century to the NT manuscripts. Thus, their ability to reflect earlier opinions is questionable at best. Nevertheless, they are usually decent indicators as to the opinion in the ninth century. And what they reveal is that  ᾿Ιουνιαν was largely considered a man’s name (for the bulk of the MSS have the circumflex over the ultima).1

Second, somewhat contradictory evidence is found in the church fathers: an almost universal sense that this was a woman’s name surfaces—at least through the twelfth century. Nevertheless, this must be couched tentatively because although at least seventeen fathers discuss the issue (see Fitzmyer’s commentary on Romans for the data), the majority of these are Latin fathers. The importance of that fact is related to the following point.

Third, another consideration has to do with the frequency of this word as a man’s or a woman’s name. On the one hand, no instances of Junias as a man’s name have surfaced to date in Greek literature, while at least three instances of Junia as a woman’s name have appeared in Greek. Further, Junia was a common enough Latin name and, since this was Paul’s letter to the Romans, one might expect to see a few Latin names on the list. But even the data on this score can be deceptive, for the man’s name Junianas was frequent enough in Latin and Greek writings (and, from my cursory examination of Latin materials, the nickname Iunias also occurred as a masculine name on occasion2). What still needs to be examined is the control group: that is, are the other nicknames found in the NT (such as Silas, Epaphras) all exampled in extra-biblical literature? I don’t know the answer to that; to my knowledge no one has done an exhaustive search of the data for all the names of people in the NT (though Lampe has done something fairly close to this, but I have not yet seen his work on “Roman Christians”). In the least, the data on whether  ᾿Ιουνιαν is feminine or masculine are simply inadequate to make a decisive judgment, though what minimal data we do have suggests a feminine name. Although most modern translations regard the name as masculine, the data simply do not yield themselves in this direction. And although we are dealing with scanty material, it is always safest to base one’s views on actual evidence rather than mere opinion.3

What is Junia’s Relation to the Apostles?

Although the vast bulk of commentaries and translations regard Junia(s) to be one of the apostles (in a non-technical sense), such a view is based on less than adequate evidence. At present, I am involved in a search of the key term in Romans 16:7 that would help us decide this issue—ἐπίσημος. Using the TLG database (which now incorporates all Greek literature from Homer to AD 600 and most Greek literature from AD 600 to 1453), as well as the PHI CD of Greek non-literary papyri, we are able to scan over 100 million words of Greek. Not all of the relevant materials have yet been translated, but of what has a certain pattern has developed.

At issue is whether we should translate the phrase in Romans 16:7—ἐπίσημος ἐν τοῖς ἀποστόλοις—as “outstanding among the apostles” or “well known to the apostles.” Although almost all translations assume the first rendering, this is by no means a given. Even in a meticulous commentary such as Fitzmyer’s, though both options are discussed, no evidence is supplied for either. But the evidence is out there; mere opinion is inadequate.

In order to resolve this issue two items need to be examined. First is the lexical field of the adjective ἐπίσημος. Second is the the syntactical implication of this adjective in collocation with ἐν plus the dative.

First, for the lexical issue. ἐπίσημος can mean “well known, prominent, outstanding, famous, notable, notorious” (BAGD 298 s.v. ἐπίσημος; LSJ 655-56; LN 28.31). The lexical domain can roughly be broken down into two streams: ἐπίσημος is used either in an implied comparative sense (“prominent, outstanding [among]”) or in an elative sense (“famous, well known [to]”).

Second, the key to determining the meaning of the term in any given passage is both the general context and the specific collocation of this word with its adjuncts. Hence, we turn to the ἐν τοῖς ἀποστόλοις. As a working hypothesis, we would suggest the following. Since a noun in the genitive is typically used with comparative adjectives, we might expect such with an implied comparison. Thus, if in Rom 16:7 Paul meant to say that Andronicus and Junia were outstanding among the apostles, we might have expected him to use the genitive4 τῶν ἀποστόλων. On the other hand, if an elative force is suggested—i.e., where no comparison is even hinted at—we might expect ἐν + the dative.

As an aside, some commentators reject such an elative sense in this passage because of the collocation with the preposition ἐν,5 but such a view is based on a misperception of the force of the whole construction. On the one hand, there is a legitimate complaint about seeing ἐν with dative as indicating an agent , and to the extent that “well known by the apostles” implies an action on the apostles’ part (viz., that the apostles know) such an objection has merit.6 On the other hand, the idea of something being known by someone else does not necessarily imply agency. This is so for two reasons. First, the action implied may actually be the passive reception of some event or person (thus, texts such as 1 Tim 3:16, in which the line ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις can be translated either as “was seen by angels” or “appeared to angels”; either way the “action” performed by angels is by its very nature relatively passive). Such an idea can be easily accommodated in Rom 16:7: “well known to/by the apostles” simply says that the apostles were recipients of information, not that they actively performed “knowing.” Thus, although ἐν plus a personal dative does not indicate agency, in collocation with words of perception, (ἐν plus) dative personal nouns are often used to show the recipients. In this instance, the idea would then be “well known to the apostles.” Second, even if ἐν with the dative plural is used in the sense of “among” (so Moo here, et alii), this does not necessarily locate Andronicus and Junia within the band of apostles; rather, it is just as likely that knowledge of them existed among the apostles.

Turning to the actual data, we notice the following. When a comparative notion is seen, that to which ἐπίσημος is compared is frequently, if not usually, put in the genitive case. For example, in 3 Macc 6:1 we read Ελεαζαρος δέ τις ἀνὴρ ἐπίσημος τῶν ἀπὸ τής χώρας ἱερέων (“Eleazar, a man prominent among the priests of the country”). Here Eleazar was one of the priests of the country, yet was comparatively oustanding in their midst. The genitive is used for the implied comparison (τῶν ἱερέων). In Ps Sol 17:30 the idea is very clear that the Messiah would “glorify the Lord in a prominent [place] in relation to all the earth” (τὸν κύριον δοξάσει ἐν ἐπισήμῳ πάσης τῆς γῆς). The prominent place is a part of the earth, indicated by the genitive modifier. Martyrdom of Polycarp 14:1 speaks of an “outstanding ram from a great flock” (κριὸς ἐπίσημος ἐκ μεγάλου).  Here ἐκ plus the genitive is used instead of the simple genitive, perhaps to suggest the ablative notion over the partitive, since this ram was chosen for sacrifice (and thus would soon be separated from the flock). But again, the salient features are present: (a) an implied comparison (b) of an item within a larger group, (c) followed by (ἐκ plus) the genitive to specify the group to which it belongs.7

When, however, an elative notion is found, ἐν plus a personal plural dative is not uncommon. In Ps Sol 2:6, where the Jewish captives are in view, the writer indicates that “they were a spectacle among the gentiles” (ἐπισήμῳ ἐν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν). This construction comes as close to Rom 16:7 as any I have yet seen. The parallels include (a) people as the referent of the adjective ἐπίσημος, (b) followed by ἐν plus the dative plural, (c) the dative plural referring to people as well. All the key elements are here. Semantically, what is significant is that (a) the first group is not a part of the second—that is, the Jewish captives were not gentiles; and (b) what was ‘among’ the gentiles was the Jews’ notoriety. This is precisely how we are suggesting Rom 16:7 should be taken. That the parallels discovered so far8 conform to our working hypothesis at least gives warrant to seeing Andronicus’ and Junia’s fame as that which was among the apostles. Whether the alternative view has semantic plausibility remains to be seen.

In sum, until further evidence is produced that counters the working hypothesis, we must conclude that Andronicus and Junia were not apostles, but were known to the apostles. To be sure, our conclusion is tentative. But it is always safer to stand on the side of some evidence than on the side of none at all.

This, however, should not be the end of the matter. We welcome any and all evidence that either supports or contradicts our working hypothesis. After all, our objective is to pursue truth.


1 Although some might suspect a chauvinistic motive on the part of the scribes, this assumes that all scribes were men. A recent doctoral dissertation done at the University of North Carolina, Chapel Hill, has demonstrated otherwise.

2 This tentative conclusion is contradicted by older studies that are presently inaccessible to me. Nevertheless, the database I am using is the CD from the Packard Humanities Institute, certainly more comprehensive than anything examined previously.

3 The NET Bible regards this as a woman’s name because the data are sufficient to argue this way, while they are insufficient to argue that it is a man’s name.

4 Either the simple genitive, or one after the preposition ἐκ.

5 Moo, for example, writes: “if Paul had wanted to say that Andronicus and Junia were esteemed ‘by’ the apostles, we would have expected him to use a simple dative or ὑπό with the genitive” (D. J. Moo, Romans, NICNT, 923).

6 Cf. Wallace, Exegetical Syntax, 163-66, where it is indicated that the only clear texts in the NT in which a dative of agency occurs involve a perfect passive verb; in the discussion of ἐν with dative, it is suggested that there are “no unambiguous examples” of this idiom.

7 But in the Additions to Esther 16:22 we read that the people are to “observe this as a notable day among the commemorative festivals” (ἐν ταῖς ...ἑορταῖς ἐπίσημον ἡμέραν). In this text, that which is ἐπίσημος is itself among  (ἐν) similar entities. Whether this normally or even ever happens with personal nouns in the plural after ἐν is a different matter, and one that cannot be answered until further research is conducted.

8 To be sure, much more work needs to be done. All of TLG and PHI #7 need to be searched for the construction. Nevertheless, the evidence thus far adduced falls right in line with our working hypothesis.

Related Topics: Text & Translation

The Lord is My Shepherd

Related Media

Editor’s Note: Ruqaya’s stirring testimony speaks eloquently to the power of the gospel. This young lady grew up as a Muslim, but put her faith in Jesus Christ a few years ago. Her testimony is somewhat reminiscent of Paul’s Damascus Road experience. I know her well, and can affirm the truth of this testimony. My prayer is that her words here will drive deep and convict many of her Arab countrymen of their need of the Savior. You are sure to hear more of “Rockie’s” devotion to Christ in the years to come. Rockie, may God grant you opportunity and boldness in your witness to the Lord Jesus Christ.

Daniel B. Wallace,
August 1, 2003

It was February 10, 1990 on a Saturday when I sat at the airport at the age of 23. I thought about what happened in my past life, what is happening to me now, and what could happen to me in the future. My plane to Jordan would leave in an hour and my life would never be the same. I would marry a man whom my father chose for me and I would never return to the U.S. unless my husband decided to move here.

You see, I was born in Jordan to a Palestinian family. As the third and middle child, my grandmother decided I should be the first of my brothers and sisters to carry a Muslim name. She named me Ruqaya, after one of the messenger Mohammed’s daughters.  When I was eight years old, my father decided to come to the U.S. to make some money and eventually go back to Jordan.  He feared his daughters would grow up to become American women and possibly even marry American men. My father held very strongly to his Arab customs and wanted his children to follow the Arab customs and Islam, especially his daughters. It is a disgrace to the family and forbidden in Islam for an Arab Muslim woman to marry a non-Muslim man. On the other hand my brothers were allowed to marry anyone they wanted as long as they are believers of the Books (Torah and Gospel) because Islam gave them that right. That is why my father sent me to Jordan to go to high school.

I lived with my grandmother, my uncle, and his family for a few years. My father was so pleased with me because I became a devout Muslim. He was relieved to know he didn’t have to worry about my older sister because she was already married to an Arab Muslim, my younger sister was too young for him to worry about, and I was living the life that would please God and him. I stayed in Jordan as my dad traveled back and forth from Jordan to the U.S. so he can visit me while I was going to school. As much as I loved seeing him, I felt happy living in Jordan and following God’s ways. I prayed five times a day, fasted the month of Ramadan, read the Qur’an daily, wore the veil (covering the entire body and showing only the hands, face and feet) and tried to imitate the prophet Mohammed in every way. No matter what I did for God, I felt I needed to do more to show him how obedient I was to Him. I would sit with my relatives and start quoting the prophet Mohammed and the Qur’an to them. My father was so proud of me!

The more I spent time in Islam, the further I drifted from God. The Muslims I knew didn’t seem to truly love God. They worshipped Him to obtain heaven and feared His wrath and anger. I also began to wonder about my motive in following Islam. “Was I following it for God or for the people around me?”, I thought to myself. I’m not sure what my answer was, but I decided not to wear the veil anymore and act like a Muslim instead of looking like one. Worshipping God suddenly became an issue only between God and me.

At the age of twenty three, my father decided I should be married. In the Arab culture, the marriage process required a man asking for a woman’s hand from her family. Dating is not allowed, but both have a chance to talk to each other in the presence of their families before they decide if they are right for each other. Several Arab Muslims came to ask for my hand, but I refused. I had a hard time marrying someone that I didn’t know just to please my father. The culture and Islam allow marriages between first cousins. I refused to marry my cousin along with distant relatives and even strangers. “Why would my father want me to marry someone I didn’t love or even know?”, I felt. At the same time, my father didn’t understand why I would refuse all these good men when he knew quite well that love comes after marriage and not before. When my dad realized that reasoning with me wouldn’t work, he tried force. He decided I should go back to Jordan and stay there until I was married. My younger sister was sixteen at the time, so my dad felt she should come with me. That was a trying moment in my life.

Disgrace in the family brought by a daughter is the worst shame a family can go through. Many families have killed their daughters for what the culture considers disgrace. That was what I had to think about when I sat at the airport with my sister as we prepared to leave for Jordan. My dad flew to Jordan before us to prepare for my wedding and my brother made sure we would get to the airport without any problems. As I sat in the airport, I knew what I had to face—disgrace or misery: disgrace the family if I ran away or be miserable when married to one of my cousins for the rest of my life. At that point, I was so angry at my father and God: angry at my father for what he was doing and angry at God for allowing what was happening to me. I felt my heart screaming at God and saying, “Out of everyone in my family, it was ME who prayed to You, ME who fasted for You, ME who studied the Qur’an and this is what You allow to happen to me?! Why did You allow my family to send me to Jordan when I was still a teenager? Why did I have to live in an uncaring home? Why didn’t You help me pursue my education when my dad refused to let me continue my education? Why did You allow my grandmother, my uncle and his family to treat me so harshly when I was with them? Why did You allow all these bad things to happen to me? Why God, WHY?!” I made a decision that day to stop praying to God and stop worshiping Him the way I had done in the past.

February 10, 1990 was the day that completely changed my life. My younger sister and I took our luggage and we were on our way to the nearest hotel. The plane landed sixteen hours later as my father, along with other relatives, waited for us in the airport to greet us. When my father realized that we weren’t on the plane, he went out of his mind! He called my brother and told him we weren’t on the plane so my brother began to desperately search for us. My sister knew she had to go back home because the family would kill us both once they found us. There was a possibility they would claim I kidnapped my sister because she was under age. We both agreed she would tell them that I dragged her off the plane and forced her to come with me so they would not harm her. I promised her that if they tried to force her to do anything she didn’t want, I would come back and get her. We tearfully said good-bye to one another thinking that we would never see each other again.

God alone was the only One who could protect me, but I was so angry at Him that I didn’t ask for His help. I didn’t have much money and I couldn’t work because they would find me under my social security number. I didn’t have many American friends because my father wouldn’t allow me to be influenced by their “Satanic ways.” And more importantly, I didn’t know what to do in a society I hardly associated with. I needed courage, strength and wisdom.

I joined the U.S. Army National Guard so the government could protect me. Once I was done with my military training, I went back to a suburb in the city where my family lived and I lived there in hiding. During that time, I found a job and became very successful at work. I rented an apartment from the money I saved while I was on active duty in the military, and met many friends that would care for me as if I was a member of their family.

Four years later, I slowly began to contact my family. My father had moved to Jordan and married another woman there, my brothers were living on their own, and my mom and younger sister were living together. After five years, I made peace with my family and they accepted me living alone and running my own life. It amazed me to see how accepting my family was of that; I began to see God’s grace in my life. “He didn’t neglect me after all,” I thought, “I don’t know what I would have done without His love and grace. He took me out of a bad situation to put me in a better one. He protected me and gave me the courage, wisdom and strength to survive on my own.” I felt ashamed for being angry at Him and I needed to make peace with Him by going back to Islam. I didn’t pray five times a day, but I thanked Him daily and did nice things that I thought would please Him.

February of 1998, I accepted a job for a company that would move me to another state to work as a salesperson. That same month a dear friend of mine died of a car accident leaving me in agony and distress. Because I had made peace with God, I was able to talk to Him and for the first time have conversations with Him. I didn’t know why He did what He did, but I had to accept it because of my past experience, I knew He did things for a reason even though I didn’t understand. Nonetheless, I asked for His help, and actually asked Him to help everyone in the world who needs help.

The month of May had arrived and it was time for me to move. I arrived not knowing anyone or what to expect from this city. I was scared being in a new city, and sad that I left my family and friends, but excited about my new job. I wanted to be close to Mexico so I could learn more Spanish and travel there for my company. My plan was to be successful in international sales, but the Lord had other plans for me.

Under the strangest circumstances, I met a woman one evening that was walking her dog in front of my apartment. She and I became friends instantly so one day she invited me to go to her church. I didn’t think there was any harm in me going to church. “After all,” I thought, “God sent down Judaism and Christianity so He would not be upset if I went to church even though I’m a Muslim.”

I really enjoyed the pastor’s sermons and felt that he offered sound teachings. The only thing that didn’t seem sound to me was when the pastor talked about Jesus being the Son of God. I felt, though, that God would forgive the pastor because he was misled by his family to believe that Jesus is the Son of God. Sometimes the pastor would say that Jesus is God in the flesh and sometimes he would say that Jesus is the Son of God. I knew for sure that the pastor was obviously confused because how can Jesus be God and then be God’s Son? That just didn’t make any sense to me. I continued to go to church until one day the pastor said that Muslims didn’t know Jesus Christ. I was struck by that comment. Something inside of me said, “Of course Muslims know Jesus; the pastor is sadly mistaken and I need to set the record straight.” After the service, I went to the pastor, introduced myself to him, and told him that I’m a Muslim and I DO know Jesus Christ. He apologized for making a blanket statement, and said, “ I know that Muslims believe he is a prophet.” I told him that I would like to meet with him to talk about his faith. Sooner or later I would have approached the pastor, but that comment expedited the whole process for me to search for the truth. That was another turning point in my life.

My heart and soul were convinced that the prophet Mohammed was the last messenger and the Qur’an was the last book sent by God. The Qur’an clearly states that Jesus was a messenger who was born of a virgin mother, Mary. He had many miracles including bringing the dead to life, healing the sick, speaking when he was a baby, and creating a bird out of clay. The Lord loved him so much that when his enemies were preparing to crucify him, God sent someone to look like Jesus and die on the cross instead of Jesus. Muslims believe that he never died, but was raised to heaven to be protected from his enemies. Jesus, in the Qur’an, claims he never told anyone to worship him but to worship the One true God. The Bible has been changed, according to Muslims, so that Christians and Jews really don’t have the true Books. When God gave Mohammed the message, God preserved the Qur’an and made sure no one would change it like the Torah and the Gospel.

I continued to go to Church and listen to the pastor’s sermons, but I began to wonder why Christians had different beliefs than Muslims. As I listened and began to read different books on Christianity and Islam, I became very confused and didn’t know what to believe anymore. I had to wrestle with many issues: Was Jesus crucified? Did Jesus die on the cross for man’s sins? Is Jesus God or the Son of God? Is God a Triune God? Is the Bible really accurate and had the Bible been preserved after all these years? If the answer was yes to all my questions, that would mean then that Mohammed was a liar and the Qur’an was not from God. Work, family, friends, and everything else around me suddenly became meaningless. My days and evenings were consumed with tears and agony over God and the truth. How could I know what really happened 2,000 years ago? How could I betray my family or maybe even God if I believed in Jesus Christ? That was a decision I was not willing to make myself. Nonetheless, I continued to read and search for answers to all my questions.

My questions needed convincing answers and I didn’t know who would help me until the pastor recommended a professor at a seminary. As I spoke with the professor and read many books, things started making sense. The Bible had to be accurate because of the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the Dead Sea Scrolls was a copy of the book of Isaiah that dates back to 125 BC. Apart from the Dead Sea Scrolls there are also parts of very old manuscripts of the Gospel according to John and the Gospel according to Matthew that we currently have that are in museums around Europe and the Middle East. I began to read and compare the prophecies that were in the Old Testament about the coming of the Messiah and how they were all fulfilled in the New Testament. The Old Testament talks about the Messiah’s hands and feet being pierced for man’s transgressions, he would be born of a virgin mother, he would be led like a lamb to the slaughter, he would be sold for 30 pieces, he would enter Jerusalem on a donkey, and he would be called the Almighty God and Prince of Peace. These prophecies in the Old Testament and how they were fulfilled in the New Testament led me to believe in the crucifixion of Jesus Christ. The only thing left for me to wrestle with was Jesus’ deity as part of a Triune God. “I can not, under any circumstances, believe that Jesus is God; that would be pure blasphemy!”, I thought to myself. I had to either end my search or challenge Jesus’ deity because I knew I couldn’t embrace Christianity if I knew I had to believe in Jesus’ deity. I needed a miracle.

One day I said to Jesus, “O.K. Mr. Messiah, it’s my way or the highway. If you are God, you would prove it to me by doing what I want you to do.” Jesus didn’t respond. I was beginning to believe that God didn’t want me to trust in Jesus because I thought for sure He’d respond to my prayers. Then one Sunday, I went to church and the pastor was talking about prayer. He said, “When I pray for something, I usually say: God, if this is Your will, then open the door wide open or slam it shut, but please Lord, don’t let me make this decision myself.” I felt good about that prayer because I was afraid of making the wrong decision about God. As soon as I got home that day I prayed and said, “God, if you want me to follow Christianity, then open the doors wide open or slam it shut, but please Lord let me make this decision myself.” For a whole week nothing happened.

Sunday morning August 2, 1998, I woke up feeling depressed as usual about my search. I decided not to go to church because I didn’t want to hear people say that Jesus is God anymore. An Iranian Christian pastor called me and said he would like a Qur’an. That evening, I went to his church to give him a Qur’an because I thought it was a nice thing to do. He knew I had been searching for a few months. When I arrived at church, he asked me where I was in my search. I told him that I believed in the crucifixion of Jesus Christ, but I didn’t believe in his deity. I also told the Iranian pastor that I’ve studied the life of Jesus, I would want a man like him to be my neighbor, my brother, my father, by boss, my judge in a court of law, my king in a country because no one in history compared to him. He said, “Well, if you think he is that wonderful and that he died on the cross for your sins, will you confess that before God?” I agreed so we prayed together and he told me he would like to be the first person to shake my hand and congratulate me for being one of God’s children. He asked me to continue to pray, read the Bible daily, and tell everyone what I just did. I had no idea what he was talking about. The pastor and I said good-bye to one another and I headed for my car. I got in my car and it all hit me. I sat there in total shock and said out loud as if God was sitting right next me, “You really wanted me to do this all along didn’t You? You really wanted me to take this step, didn’t You?” I then began to cry because I realized what happened. God made the decision for me! I fought with Jesus and I lost! I wanted him to reveal himself to me on my terms, but he was willing to reveal himself to me on His terms. It was clear to me that Jesus wanted me to walk with him instead of challenge Him.

I am grateful that the Lord has been my shepherd throughout my life. He has been there for me when I needed Him and even when I thought I didn’t need Him. He has taken me through roads and routes I never dreamed to take. Above all, I’m amazed and that He loved me so much, He sent Jesus do die on the cross for me! How humbling and precious that is to me! The Lord is my shepherd and He has been leading His sheep.

Related Topics: Evangelism, Soteriology (Salvation)

Is No Place Safe Any More? (Or, Where Is God in the Midst of Tragedy?)

Related Media

Headline for the Dallas Morning News, Friday, September 17, 1999: Why? The thick black letters are an inch and a half high. They ask the question that has been haunting the country since the Wednesday before, when Larry Gene Ashbrook walked into Wedgwood Baptist Church in Forth Worth and in the space of five minutes killed seven young people, injured seven others, then turned the gun on himself and took his own life.

Comparisons with the Columbine High School shooting on April 20, in which 15 were killed (including the two gunmen) immediately come to mind. A common refrain heard on the nightly newscasts was, “First a school, then a church! Is no place safe any more?” Maybe the ‘Why?’ should have been two inches high.

Anyone with an ounce of humanity in him struggles with this question. Easy answers only come forth, it seems, from insensitive folk who prefer to distance themselves from the tragedy. Asked by my pastor, Pete Briscoe, to write up something of a theological perspective on this horrific event, I found myself procrastinating. And procrastinating. What could I possibly say that could offer any comfort?

One of the dangers of offering a theological perspective is that it can look cold and calculating, insensitive to the unspeakable pain that survivors, relatives, and friends are going through. It can look no different than so many politicians’ speeches that are simply hollow rhetoric. So I must preface my remarks with this: I weep with you. I grieve with you. And although I can’t possibly know what you’re going through, my heart aches for you.

John Piper put it well: “Pain is life’s greatest hermeneutic.” By that he meant that it is often only through pain that we can see all the pieces of the puzzle, that we have the big picture of what life is all about laid out so clearly in front of us, that we can finally understand. But pain does not automatically do this: our response to pain does—and even then, not immediately. Atheists and saints are both often ‘born’ in the aftermath of a tragedy.

When we ask, “How could God let this happen?”, we are on to something. What we do and feel next is of utmost importance. Some people decide that it is blasphemous even to raise such a question in the first place, that to ask ‘Why?’ is itself sinful. I do not share that sentiment, for this reason: it is neither human nor biblical. The books of Job and the Psalms ask this question at least sixty times—almost regardless of which translation one reads—and a very large portion of these questions are on the lips of godly men as they wonder about God’s ways. It is no sin to ask why. Indeed, I think it may well be wrong not to ask that question! When our son nearly died from cancer a few years ago, some friends consoled with this kind of attitude. They comforted us by quoting precious verses—especially Romans 8:28 (“All things work together for good for those who love God…”)—and then they walked away. Scripture became for them a way to deny the grief, to deny the pain. They loved us at an arm’s distance. To be sure, in the midst of suffering the human soul cries out for answers. But it cries out for more than that. It cries out for comfort, for love, for someone to share the burden of grief.

All of this is not to say there are no answers. But the answer that we seek is too often elusive; we never really know in this life—we cannot know in this life—the details of the answer to our question. Now, to be sure, we sometimes do get a partial answer to the ‘Why?’ As Pete preached last Sunday, a huge part of God’s purpose is to make his Son known. He gave eloquent testimony to the fact that God had done just this. The response of Christians around the country to the tragedy at Wedgwood Baptist Church was overwhelming: renewed commitments, greater boldness for Christ, and opportunity to speak of our confident hope of the resurrection because Jesus paid the price for our sins. All this in a matter of days. And if that were not enough, the cover story of this last week’s Christianity Today (dated October 4) was “’Do You Believe in God?’ How Columbine Changed America.” If we wonder about the impact that the Fort Worth shooting might have, sit down and read this CT article by Wendy Murray Zoba. She chronicles how three teenagers—Rachel Scott, Val Schnurr, and Cassie Bernall—affirmed their belief in God before getting shot. One of the kids in Cassie’s youth group later confessed, “Cassie raised the bar for me and my Christianity.” In Rachel’s journal there is an earnestness about her faith, reminiscent of Jim Elliott: “I want heads to turn in the halls when I walk by. I want them to stare at me, watching and wanting the light you put in me. I want you to overflow my cup with your Spirit…. I want you to use me to reach the unreached.” God answered her prayer! Her father relates,

Columbine was a wound to open up the hearts of the kids in this country. Tens of thousands of young people have given their hearts to the Lord [since Columbine]; we know that from phone class and letters. Organized Christianity hasn’t been able to do that in decades.”

And make no mistake about it: Columbine and Wedgwood are related: Cassie Bernall’s mother offers this insight:

Most of the kids they killed—if not all of them—were Christian kids. …

It was spiritual warfare. It’s still happening. At Cassie’s memorial there was a happy-face balloon, and our son discovered someone had drawn a bullet going into it. And there was a young man walking in the mall wearing a black trench coat with a T-shirt that said, “We’re still ahead 13 to 2.”

Whether we will ever know what was in Larry Ashbrook’s mind when he gunned down the kids at Wedgwood Baptist Church, we can be assured that behind him stood the forces of Beelzebul, of Satan himself. If six months after the Columbine slaughter America has already started to rouse from its spiritual slumber, what will happen six months from now? Maybe not only will unbelievers turn to Christ, but believers might strengthen their commitment to the Lord who bought them and jettison the shell of cultural Christianity that their faith has become.

But what if that doesn’t happen? What if this country simply goes back to sleep, as though the whole thing were simply a bad dream, a mere blip in an otherwise peaceful slumber. What if the responses are merely ethical and not spiritual? What if people clean up their lives but don’t turn to Christ—resulting in the same eternity reserved for the worst of unrepentant sinners? If such were the case, would God’s purposes be thwarted? NO. But our answers to such tragedies would continue to lack the details that we had hoped for.

So what answer can we know? I’ll get to that in a moment.

As I said, we are on to something when we start by asking God why there is evil in the world. When evil gets a face, when it becomes personal—as it inevitably does in everyone’s life—the question becomes more earnest, more desperate. At bottom, what we are really asking is a question about the nature of God. When someone asks, “How could God let this happen?” two things are presupposed about God: he is good and he is sovereign. And therein lies the crux of the problem. If we think about it a little while, we might even articulate it this way, “If God is good, isn’t he also powerful enough not to have let this happen?” Or, put another way, “If God is in control, isn’t he good enough not to have let this happen?” Either way, the goodness of God or the sovereignty of God seems to be on trial. Perhaps you can see why atheists are born at a time like this: their image of God is shattered at the paradox of the situation. “God wasn’t there for me” becomes the mantra that leads to atheism or, in the least, to a marginalization of God in one’s thinking. The scary thing is that we are all atheists at heart when we sanitize and shrink-wrap the majesty and grandeur of God into manageable proportions.

Briefly, I wish to address the issue of two of God’s attributes, his sovereignty and his goodness, and how they relate to one another. Consider the following points.

(1) When we think of God’s will we need to nuance the discussion. The Bible speaks of God’s will in essentially two ways: what he desires and what he decrees. These two must not be confused.

(2) God desires that we should not sin: “For this is the will of God, your sanctification; that is, that you abstain from sexual immorality” (1 Thess 4:3); “live the rest of the time in the flesh no longer for the lusts of men, but for the will of God” (1 Pet 4:2); “understand what the will of the Lord is—namely, do not get drunk with wine but be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:17-18). And yet, we do sin. If this is all there is to God’s will, then he’s not very powerful.

(3) God has decreed all that has come to pass and all that will come to pass: He “works all things according to the counsel of his will” (Eph 1:11); “I know that you can do all things and that no purpose of yours can be thwarted” (Job 42:2); “For truly in this city there were gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the people of Israel, to do whatever your hand and your purpose predestined to occur” (Acts 4:27-28). Cf. also Isaiah 40, Romans 9-11. Yet, not all that God has decreed is good (at least not in the short run). If this is all there is to God’s will, then he must not be good himself.

(4) These two aspects of God’s will can be stated simply: God desires some things that he does not decree, and God decrees some things that he does not desire.

(5) Now, before we jump to any conclusions about the illogic of it all, we need to consider another attribute of God: simplicity. God is one (Deut 6:4); his attributes cannot be compartmentalized. There is no contradiction in him. He is eternal in his love, omniscient in his justice, good in his sovereignty, and sovereign in his goodness. He is not good one day, then sovereign the next.

Nothing catches him by surprise; not even a sparrow falls to the ground without his knowledge. Not even the Fort Worth tragedy caught God off-guard. We must not think of him as sitting on the throne, trying to keep track of all the activities on this old sphere, but every once in a rare while missing a catastrophe that somehow slips under his heavenly radar! God is not sitting there thinking, “I should have seen the signs! I should have known Larry Ashbrook was capable of doing this!” He knows all things that ever have happened, are happening, or will happen. He also knows all the ‘could haves’, ‘would haves’ and ‘should haves.’ All contingencies and realities are perfectly known to God and always have been. God doesn’t learn, precisely because he already knows all. And if he never has to look down the corridors of time to see what’s going to happen, this must mean that everything happens according to his purpose. Even the mass murder in Fort Worth.

And yet, his purpose is ultimately to glorify himself. He does this especially through his creation, particularly humanity. Ultimately, all that God does is good—perfectly, eternally, infinitely good. One of the reasons we can’t see it—or refuse to see it—is that our horizon is temporal. In modern America, we tend to interpret God’s blessings in dollars and cents, in quality of life, in conveniences and comfort. We think that what we have come to value must be what God values. But listen to the remarkable words of the apostle Paul as he sits imprisoned in Rome: “For it has been granted to you not only to believe in Christ but also to suffer for him” (Phil 1:29, NET). Paul says that suffering for Christ is a gift! In Paul’s mind, what these Christian kids in Fort Worth just went through was a privilege. If we can’t see that then perhaps our values have gotten really messed up somewhere along the road. But we also can’t see that because we tend to view this life as all there really is. But the reality is that this life—whether it lasts for two days or ninety years—is not even a speck on eternity’s time line. As one of my professors, S. Lewis Johnson, Jr., used to say, “There is an ‘until’.” What all this means is that the full goodness of God cannot possibly be known in this life.

(6) That there are no contradictions in God does not mean that there are no apparent contradictions in God. That is because what the infinite God does appears to finite creatures as impossible and contradictory. Perhaps an analogy might help. It is as though we lived in a two-dimensional world, looking out at a three-dimensional world. If in our realm of existence we saw a man walk toward us, since our only frame of reference was two dimensional we would swear that the man was growing at an incredible pace! But then, just as quickly, he shrinks when he walks away. We know that that is impossible, but we have no explanation for what we just witnessed. And frankly, we don’t have the capacity to understand what we just witnessed. But if we decide never to look past our shallow plane of existence because we can’t understand what we see, our lives are thereby impoverished by our stubbornness and ignorance.

(7) All of this leads to a final point: How do we deal with the tension between the goodness of God and the sovereignty of God? And this is the real question we are asking in the midst of tragedy. Our response is to trust. And to know that there is no contradiction in God, to actually take comfort in the fact that he is infinite and we are but puny little creatures who often sin by presuming that we can tell God how to do his job. As he says in Isaiah 55:8-9, “My ways are not your ways and my thoughts are not your thoughts. Just as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts higher than your thoughts.” Or, as the apostle Paul put it, “Oh, the depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments and how fathomless his ways! For who has known the mind of the Lord, or who has been his counselor? Or who has first given to God that God needs to repay him? For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be glory forever! Amen” (Rom 11:33-36, NET). This crescendo of praise from Paul’s pen was not conceived in an ivory tower setting. Paul magnified his God in response to his own profound  grief over the unresponsiveness of the Jews to their Messiah (cf. Rom 9:1-3). His words are just as relevant and just as comforting today as they were then.

Related Topics: Cultural Issues, Theology Proper (God)

Rushdoony, Neoplatonism, and a Biblical View of Sex

Related Media

N.B. The following essay was originally an address given at the University of Arkansas in 1987.

Preface

I am unashamedly a Christian. But lest you think that I have come here today simply to say, “Fidelity in a monogamous relationship is the only way to go—all else is sin!” I want to set you at ease. I do believe that, but there are reasons for my faith. If you’re not a Christian, you may still be interested in hearing the rationale for a Christian view of sex and marriage.

As foreign as philosophy seems from a talk about sex, it is necessary to gain some philosophical underpinnings in order to view sex properly. Consequently, I will address two topics in this lecture: (1) misconceptions about the biblical view of sex and (2) what the Bible teaches about sex and marriage.

I. Misconceptions about the Biblical View of Sex: Rushdoony to the Rescue!

Contrary to popular opinion, God is not a cosmic killjoy. He is not out to ruin all our fun! Unfortunately, many people have viewed God that way for centuries. Some have even castrated themselves in alleged obedience to the divine will. In some measure, this is because Christians have promoted such a false view of God. . .

Among the many influences on Christianity almost from its inception, one of the most pernicious—and arguably the most destructive from a philosophical view—is neoplatonism. Neoplatonism is simply ‘new’ (neo) ‘Plato-(n)ism.’ It is a dialectical dualism which pits spirit against flesh, body against soul, mind against matter, etc. It crept into the church in the second century AD through the route of gnosticism. Now the gnostics were an early Christian heretical group, quite popular in Egypt, which viewed spirit as good and matter as evil. They found a difficulty accepting the biblical teaching of creation: “God created the heavens and the earth. . . and it was good.” So they posited a series of semi-creators between God and the earth. That is to say, God created the next being who was not, like God, pure spirit, but was instead an amalgam of spirit and matter (though mostly spirit). He then created the next being who had a bit more matter to his make-up. And so on down the line: the last creator created the earth, pure matter. Jesus Christ was considered very high up on the ladder—hence, the gnostics did not view him as real man.

The result of all this was that by mixing the Bible with ancient Greek philosophy, Christians began to see a dichotomy, a dialectical struggle within man, between body and soul, between emotion and reason. In reality, such a view of life was merely neoplatonism in Christian garb. Unfortunately, it has plagued Christians—as well as all of western civilization—for nearly twenty centuries. We might, with some justification, call it the ‘Spock syndrome.’ (Spock, as you well know, was the science officer of Star Trek fame: as the son of a vulcan father and a human mother, he constantly wrestled with reason vs. emotion. Any time he gave in to his human nature, Dr. McCoy was quick to point it out to him! [Incidentally, it is no accident that the very human—and emotional—McCoy was the medical officer, i.e., he dealt with bodies, while Spock was the science officer who dealt with things related to pure reason.] Although Gene Roddenberry had glamorized Spock [he was just about everyone’s favorite character], in reality a person who adopts a world-view that sees body and spirit in mortal combat is a moral monster.)

We might illustrate, rather crudely, the neoplatonic view of life:

I’d like to illustrate how extensive and pervasive this neoplatonic world-view has infected Christianity by quoting heavily from a very important book: Rousas John Rushdoony’s Flight from Humanity (Craig Press, 1973). Although this will seem somewhat pedantic, it is crucial for you who are Christians—as well as you who are non-Christians—to understand the difference between what many people believe about Christianity and what the Bible teaches.

First, Rushdoony gives some examples of how ancient Christians mixed biblical Christianity with neoplatonism:

“For a Christian, the lives of ‘the saints’ are sometimes painful reading. Intelligence and faith are sometimes wedded to the most ludicrous practices and to ideas alien to Biblical religion ... When, after a very hot journey, Jovinus washed his tired feet (and hands) in very cold water, and then stretched out to rest, the ‘holy’ Melania rebuked him:

Melania approached him like a wise mother approaching her own son, and she scoffed at his weakness, saying, “How can a warm-blooded young man like you dare to pamper your flesh that way? Do you not know that this is the source of much harm? Look, I am sixty years old and neither my feet nor my face nor any of my members, except for the tips of my fingers, has touched water, although I am afflicted with many ailments and my doctors urge me. I have not yet made concessions to my bodily desires, nor have I used a couch for resting, nor have I ever made a journey on a litter.

We learn nothing about Biblical holiness from Melania, although we do begin to realize what ‘the odor of sanctity’ could have meant.” (pp. 1-2)

“. . . the sin of Adam [was] to be as God, to transcend creatureliness with all its limitations and become more than a man. Macarius of Alexandria gives us an example of this:

Here is another example of his asceticism: He decided to be above the need for sleep, and he claimed that he did not go under a roof for twenty days in order to conquer sleep. He was burned by the heat of the sun and was drawn up with cold at night. And he also said: “If I had not gone into the house and obtained the advantage of some sleep, my brain would have shriveled up for good. I conquered to the extent I was able, but I gave in to the extent my nature required sleep.”

Early one morning when he was sitting in his cell a gnat stung him on the foot. Feeling the pain, he killed it with his hands, and it was gorged with his blood. He accused himself of acting out of revenge and he condemned himself to sit naked in the marsh of Scete out in the great desert for a period of six months. Here the mosquitos lacerate even the hides of the wild swine just as wasps do. Soon he was bitten all over his body, and he became so swollen that some thought he had elephantiasis. When he returned to his cell after six months he was recognized as Macarius only by his voice.

To attain perfection meant forsaking every evidence of creatureliness, every element of bodily desires and needs, and becoming pure spirit in a virtually dead flesh.” (pp. 3-4)

But lest we think that this view of Christianity only plagued the ancients, let’s listen to a more up-to-date illustration. Michael Wigglesworth was a Puritan pastor (b. 1638-d.1705) who gave Puritans a bad name. Puritans, the Victorian era, etc., all seem to have received bad press nowadays—as though they were all up-tight, prudish, stick-in-the-mud, killjoys. This was certainly true of Wigglesworth, but hardly of the normal Puritan. Here’s just a few examples of his lifestyle:

“He . . . saw himself as guilty for lacking the Biblical attitude toward his parents [i.e., he had very little affection for them], and yet guilty for considering the creature at all. His blend of neoplatonism and Christianity ensured his guilt at all times.” (p. 39)

In other words, since the Bible teaches that children are to honor and respect their parents—and care for them in their old age—Wigglesworth condemned himself for failing to live up to this standard. On the other hand, as a neoplatonist, he felt that any consideration of fellow human beings was a sign of weakness, of giving in to his emotions, etc.: consequently, he felt guilty for even his dismal spark of feeling toward his parents.

“Like every neoplatonist, his world is egocentric; to rise above egocentricity to consider other people and to love them is to lose sight of God, in Wigglesworth’s eyes.” (p. 41) In a very real sense, neoplatonism has spawned narcissism and the ‘me-generation.’

“He enjoyed bad health; it was a way of denying the body; he enjoyed guilt, because it was a way of proving his dislike for the things of this world and his ‘sensitivity’ to their false claims. His ‘spiritual’ sensitivity rested, however, on a false premise which made him a moral monster” (italics added). (p.43)

Wigglesworth was a pretty fair poet in his day, though his poems were gloomy, reflecting his brand of ‘Christianity.’ Rushdoony tells us that:

“He also wrote, in ‘Vanity of Vanities,’ ‘what is Pleasure but the Devil’s bait?’ Beauty, friends, riches, all ‘draw men’s Souls into Perdition.’” (p. 48)

“Thus, as a good neoplatonist, he could write also a poem on ‘Death Expected and Welcomed.’ There was nothing in life that Wigglesworth enjoyed, or if he did, that he did not feel guilty about. He included also ‘A Farewell to the World,’ of which he said that it ‘is not my Treasure.’ Although he looked forward to the resurrection body, he had no good word for his present body, on which he heaped every kind of insult:

Farewell, vile Body, subject to decay,
Which art with lingering sickness worn away;
I have by thee much Pain and Smart endur’d;
Great Grief of Mind has thou to me procur’d;
Great Grief of Mind by being Impotent,
And to Christ’s Work an awkward Instrument.
Thou shalt not henceforth be a clog to me,
Nor shall my Soul a Burthen be to thee.

This is good neoplatonic dualism. It is alien to Biblical faith.” (p. 48)

This syncretistic blending of neoplatonism with Christianity plagues us to the present day. Two illustrations will suffice. (1) James Michener’s dislike of Christians is obvious in his book, Hawaii. The missionary (played by Max von Sidow in the movie) in the name of God promotes neoplatonism. It is quite unfortunate that, as much of a caricature as this portrait is, there is still an element of truth in it: neoplatonism has infected Christianity to the present day.

(2) Sex is often considered dirty by Christians. Several years ago when I worked in a machine shop I worked beside a man whose son was to be married soon. The young man and his bride-to-be were good Presbyterians and were going to get married in the church. The day before the wedding, this fellow lathe-operator told me that the wedding was off. I inquired why. He told me that the girl had just the night before announced that they were not going to have sex on the honeymoon. She intended to have sex only three times because she wanted to have only three children! Not only did she have a lot to learn about sex, but she had a lot to learn about the biblical view of sex!

All of us know of Christians who have tended toward a neoplatonic world-view. What I ask is that if you are a Christian, consider how it has infected your view of life. If you are not a Christian, listen further to what biblical Christianity is all about.

However, let’s put the shoe on the other foot. Neoplatonism has plagued western civilization in toto. It is, in fact, at the root of much drug abuse, the hippie movement, and radical feminism—as well as chauvinism. Listen again to Rushdoony:

On hippies (the book was written in 1973):

“This attitude is very much like that of the modern hippy, who despises the flesh and shows contempt for the body and its dress. The hippy, in his sexuality, expresses contempt for the body, either by treating sexual acts as of no account in casual promiscuity, or by a bored denial of sex. There is far more abstention from sex among hippies than is generally recognized. Either in abstention or in casual, unemotional promiscuity, it is a contempt of the flesh which is manifested. Dirty bodies and dirty clothing are other means of manifesting the same faith.” (p. 5)

On radical chauvinism (p. 11):

“The gospel of Sir Thomas More was his Utopia, wherein man’s mind imposed its idea on all of the world of matter. For More, wives were to be selected after being inspected naked; their minds were not important enough to count. So unimportant was matter or particularity, so little was it the world of the spirit, that wives were to be chosen without regard to the unity of mind and matter, naked on inspection like cattle.”

At least More was consistent—he practiced what he preached. When his daughters were old enough to be married, he herded them onto a platform, stripped them down before their courtiers, and married them off!

On inverted neoplatonism (p. 12):

“Inverted neoplatonism glorified nature and therefore women. The troubadors of medieval and Renaissance Europe downgraded love in marriage, because it belonged to the world of grace, which they identified as the platonic world of spirit. Adultery, on the other hand, belonged to the world of nature. The wife was thus a low creature, and the illicit lover a queen of love. As Valency noted, in writing of such adulterous love, ‘However illicit it might be from the point of view of religion and society, it had the sanction of nature; as matters stood it was grounded on firmer stuff than the marriage bond.’ ‘The sanction of nature,’ this is the key. Two worlds exist for neoplatonism, as for all dialecticism; they are alien to one another, so that, however much they exist as one, the world of matter and spirit, nature and grace, or nature and freedom, are somehow at odds with one another. If one is favored, the other must suffer. If the sanction of nature, illicit love, is exalted, the sanction of grace, lawful marriage, must be downgraded, because it is in principle unnatural for love and marriage, nature and grace, to be compatible.”

This inverted neoplatonism has reared its ugly head again in the 1960’s. One of the reasons it has done so, I’m afraid, is that the antithesis, neoplatonic morality, denied the goodness and joy of sex.

This inverted neoplatonism “is reflected in Demosthenes’ speech against Neaera, when he pointed out that ‘The hetaerae [prostitutes] are for our amusement, our slave women are for our daily personal service, and our wives are to bear us children and manage our household.’” (p. 25)

This produced something of a schizophrenic psychology, for one constantly saw a battle within himself between mind and body. “. . . some philosophers resolved the schizophrenic psychology in favor of the body, and hence concupiscence. Aristoxenus reflected this opinion:

Nature demands that we make lust the zenith of life. The greatest possible increase of sexual feeling should be every human being’s goal. To suppress the claims of the flesh is neither reason nor happiness; to do so is to be proved ignorant of the demands of human nature.

The Cynics in particular were intellectual champions of this position. “In every case, the warfare of body and mind was assumed; this conflict was in essence a metaphysical, not an ethical or moral conflict.” (p. 27)

“Modern man has not escaped the dilemma of Greek psychology. Some have chosen to ‘solve’ the problem by denying the body, as witness Christian Science, and others have denied the soul, as witness the Behaviorists. These ‘solutions’ are metaphysical, not moral. They leave only a fragmented man, as in the last days of the Greco-Roman world. The same is true of those who seek in the drug experience a flight from the world of the senses into the supposed timelessness and oneness of the world of the soul.” (p. 31)

Finally, neoplatonism has infected radical feminism:

“Much of what has been condemned as a product of Catholic and Protestant teaching has been the continuing influence of neoplatonism and best exemplified in its original form among Greeks and Romans.

“Neoplatonism was very powerful in the feminist movement of the 19th and 20th centuries. Now, however, the roles were reversed. Woman was seen as pure and spiritual, and man as coarse and material. Women, it was thus held, are more ‘spiritual’ and therefore superior beings. . . . Virginia Leblick in The New Era: Woman’s Era; or Transformation from Barbaric to Humane Civilization (1910) said that the lowest prostitute was better than the best of men.” (p. 65)

We can now illustrate the ‘descent of neoplatonism’ this way:

Summary

1. Neoplatonism sets up a false antithesis between body and soul. It forces one to make a choice (which one do you say ‘sick’em’ to?), when the biblical picture of the relationship of the material to the immaterial part of man is quite different. The apostle Paul says, for example, “Husbands, love your wives as your own body, for your wife is a member of your body. Now no man ever hated his own body, but he nourishes it and takes care of it” (Eph 5:28-29). If Paul had written this after the era of Michael Wigglesworth, he would have written, “No sane man ever hated his own body”!

2. As Rushdoony points out, this false antithesis is due to the fact that people have rejected the real antithesis, the one between God and man:

“For Scripture, however, there is no such dialectical tension. The warfare is not between matter and spirit, nature and grace, or nature and freedom, but between sinful man and God. Man by his sin has declared war on God, and as a result is in a state of tension and warfare because of sin, not because of a dual nature. Man’s problem is moral and ethical, not metaphysical. Neoplatonism not only misrepresents the problem man faces, but, by making it metaphysical, makes it necessary to truncate or castrate man of a basic aspect of his being before he can be delivered.” (p. 12)

In other words, each man is in a battle, yes. But the battle is not within himself, but between himself and God. The Bible says that “God commended his own love toward us in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us” (Rom 5:8). That is, we are antagonistic toward God, but he has extended his love toward us. One of the curious things about neoplatonism is that it is universal. It is not found only in the west. In fact, the Greeks took some measure of satisfaction in noting that in India they could find ascetic parallels to their own philosophy. Rather than confirm the truth of neoplatonism, this confirms the direction in which all men travel when they reject the battle as having a vertical dimension. If God is left out of the picture, since all people sense a struggle, the only logical choice is a dialectical struggle within each person (after all, we all struggle with sin when no one else is around, so we can’t blame it on others all the time).

Now the illustration is complete:

Once a person rejects a world-view which sees man in conflict with God—a conflict only overcome through the payment of man’s sins by the death of Christ, the God-man—he virtually must adopt a one-dimensional view of the world. He no longer sees man as having the material and immaterial in partnership (the biblical picture), but instead sees them in conflict. By rejecting faith in God, he now must choose between mind and body, between the Spock syndrome and the Playboy philosophy. Most of us do not make a decisive choice, but instead swing the pendulum, creating fertile soil for schizophrenia.

II. A Biblical View of Sex

As lengthy as the first half of this lecture was, it provides a necessary backdrop for the remainder which, in reality, can be quite brief. All I want to do is touch on the four purposes of sex mentioned in the Bible.

A. Procreation

The Bible is very explicit that procreation, reproduction of the species, is a very important aspect of human sexual relations. It is the most important, in fact (Gen 1:27-27). That is one reason why most Christians believe that abortion is wrong: even when a woman conceives unintentionally, since procreation is so important an aspect of our sex lives, bringing the fetus to term overrides other considerations (not to mention the fact that most Christians also believe that the zygote, at conception, is a living human being). This is also one of the reasons the Bible speaks against homosexuality: by its very nature, homosexuality cannot fulfill the ‘prime directive’ of one’s sex life.

Unfortunately, some have viewed procreation as having exclusive rights on the use of sex (such as the young lady who wanted to have sex with her husband only three times because she only wanted three children).

B. Pleasure (or Recreation)

This might surprise you, but the Bible speaks a great deal about marital sex as a great pleasure. In fact, Paul even commands married couples not to refrain from sexual activity, because their bodies belong to their partner (1 Cor 7:3-5). I have known of couples—Christian couples—who didn’t touch each other for months at a time. This is hardly the biblical view of sex.

Again, Rushdoony makes a corrective about the normal Puritan view of sex when he writes:

“With respect to sex and marriage, the normal Puritan view was a robust and healthy one. The Rev. William Gouge, in Of domesticall duties (London, 1634), used Proverbs 5:18, 19, to express the joy and beauty of marital sex: “Let thy fountain be blessed, and rejoice with the wife of thy youth. Let her be as the loving hind and pleasant roe; let her breasts satisfy thee at all times, and be thou ravished always with her love.” The Puritans often spoke of marital sex as one of the great delights and joys among earthly blessings. Frye tells us that a ‘favorite Biblical passage cited by Puritan churchmen is Genesis XXVI. 8 where it is recorded that “Isaac was sporting with Rebekah his wife.”” (p. 36) The Hebrew word for ‘sporting’ there does not mean, I assure you, ‘playing checkers’!

There is a text in Deuteronomy which says that a young man should take a year off from war, once he gets married, ‘to cheer up his wife.’ Although the text does not say that the first year of marriage should be one long honeymoon, it does indicate the tremendous importance of the marriage in general and the wife in particular. And the Hebrew word for ‘cheer up’ really involves a profound sense of intimacy: find out what pleases the wife in every way possible.

There are many other passages which speak of pleasure in marriage. Most are ‘R rated’, however! The Song of Solomon extolls the joy of sexual pleasure within the bonds of marriage. In fact, it is so explicit that the ancient Jews forbade young men from reading the book until they turned 30!

There is an underlying assumption to the view of sexual intercourse as that which is ‘intended for pleasure’ (as Dr. Ed Wheat has dubbed it): If God created sex, and if the Bible tells us that he created it for our pleasure, then he knows how we can get the maximum benefit out of it. The view of God as a cosmic killjoy is quite wrong; for every ‘NO’ there is a ‘YES’!  It is quite true that sex outside of marriage is considered utterly sinful in the Bible. But that is only half the story: within marriage it is profoundly beautiful and utterly good.

As an illustration of this, some time back I read a book called Everything you Wanted to Know about Sex but were Afraid to Ask. In the book the author detailed the how of sex, but not the why. On one page he made the statement that what one can expect in a lifetime of sexual activity is perhaps three or four really good (A+, in the idiom of the university) sexual experiences. (Of course, this is relative: as my brother has said, “when it’s bad, it’s still pretty good; and when it’s good, it’s great!”) Nevertheless, I was a bit depressed by the statement. When one focuses only on the mechanics of sex—viewing people in a one-dimensional way—I suspect that only three or four superb experiences are all one can hope for. I can testify, however, that in my thirteen+ years1 of marriage, in which a lifelong commitment to each other stands at the foundation of such a relationship, my wife and I are enjoying one another sexually better now by far than when we were first married. What we thought was wonderful on our wedding night doesn’t hold a candle to what we are experiencing now. (Incidentally, someone asked me why we didn’t get bored with each other after that much time together. The answer is simply that sex for us is not simply the joining of two bodies, but the uniting of two persons. And we are changing and growing constantly as persons. There is a great deal of diversity, of variety, within the unity of marriage when two people are committed to each other as whole people.)

C. Intimacy and Unification

Monogamy and commitment to one person “till death do us part” are the only things that can produce the deepest intimacy. And intimacy, I believe, is what people are really after when they go after sexual experiences.

Genesis 2 says: “they were naked and were not ashamed.” Emotional and physical vulnerability between a man and woman can only take place without fear at the level of the deepest commitment.

It is quite the opposite with one-night stands or casual sex. Repeated violations of the monogamous ideal can only produce emotional sterility. A good example of this is the prostitute: although she would like to think that sex is merely the joining of flesh—something which she can divorce from her emotions—by her attempt to keep her emotions out of it, she becomes hardened, cynical. Ultimately, she is incapable of love.

The Greeks had three or four different words for love. Agape, which is love as commitment (and can extend toward those who even return hate) is the broadest kind of love. The cognate verb, agapao, is used in John 3:16: “For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that every one who believes in him will not perish but will have eternal life.” Also Romans 5:8: “God commended his own love toward us in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.” At root, it is volitional.

The second kind of love is called phileo. This is love which is reciprocated. It is love between friends. Hence, it is narrower in scope. It involves the emotions.

The third kind of love is eros (from which we get ‘erotic love’). It is intended by God to be displayed for one other person. Hence, it is the narrowest love of all. At root, it is physical.

All this can be illustrated as follows:

In any relationship, agape should always take the lead. In a marriage this is expressed in the vow, “till death do us part.” Many marriage vows express something of a phileo-eros sentiment only: “as long as love shall last.” When eros leads, there is no control, no steady course through the hard times. The relationship depends on whim.

Another way to look at sex within a Christian marriage is the following:

The Bible does recognize that man is composed of the material and immaterial—but that is where the similarity with neoplatonism ends. When both are placed in partnership under the will—and the will under God—harmony results. Only when we make a choice between body and mind do we have chaos.

D. Demonstration

Finally, in the biblical view of sex, the marriage relationship is also intended to be a demonstration of God’s love for his people. In John 13:34-35 Jesus told his disciples that their love for each other would be a demonstration of God’s love. Paul makes a specific application of this principle: “Husbands, love your wives even as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her.” The point is that the bond between a man and a woman is intended to mirror the bond between Christ and the Church.

There is a distinct side benefit to all this: a truly Christian marriage is inherently stronger than a non-Christian marriage. The reason is that a Christian marriage always has a reference point greater than oneself. In a marriage which keeps God out of the picture, if one person decides to peel out of the relationship, the other person only has himself/herself as ‘leverage.’ But in a Christian marriage, both people have already made a prior commitment to Jesus Christ. The Bible speaks of this commitment as eternal, while the marriage-bond is only bound to this life. Consequently, there is a double commitment involved—and much more at stake. If a spouse wants to forsake the marriage, he or she is also disobeying his or her Lord. On the other hand, as both husband and wife grow in their relationship to Jesus Christ, they also grow in their relationship to one another.

Diagrammed, the relationship looks like this:

You can see why I cannot speak plainly and fully about commitment in marriage without saying something about commitment to Jesus Christ: a biblical view of sex demands nothing less.


1 Keep in mind that this lecture was originally given in 1987; a few more years can now be added to this line!

Related Topics: Christian Home

Sharp Redivivus? - A Reexamination of the Granville Sharp Rule

Related Media

Outline

I. Granville Sharp and his Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article

A. Sharp’s Rule

B. Nearly Two Centuries of Abuse

II. Linguistic-Phenomenological Analysis

A. The Nature of the Construction in General

B. The Construction Involving Personal, Singular, Non-Proper Substantives

1. A Proper Semantic Grid

2. The Empirical Data

a. The Phenomena in the NT

b. The Phenomena in Extra-NT Greek Literature

Classical Usage

Usage in the Non-Literary Papyri

Exceptions to the Rule Outside the NT

C. Summary

III. The Christologically Significant Texts

A. Sharp’s Application to Christologically Significant Texts

B. Extra-Syntactical Confirmation

1. Patristic Usage of Christological Texts

2. Θεὸς Σωτήρ in the Milieu of the First Century

C. Arguments against the Application of the Rule to the Christologically Significant Texts

1. General Syntactical Considerations

2. Text-Specific and Theological Considerations

a. Θεός as a Proper Name

b. Titus 2:13

c.  Second Peter 1:1

3. Patristic Exceptions

IV. Conclusion


Few today would take issue with Rudolf Bultmann’s oft-quoted line that “In describing Christ as ‘God’ the New Testament still exercises great restraint.”2  The list of passages which seem explicitly to identify Christ with God varies from scholar to scholar, but the number is almost never more than a half dozen or so.3  As is well known, almost all of the texts are disputed as to their affirmation—due to textual or grammatical glitches—John 1:1 and 20:28 being the only two which are usually conceded without discussion.4  Among the more highly regarded passages are Rom 9:5; 2 Thess 1:12; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; and 2 Pet 1:1.

Remarkably, three of these seven involve the construction article-noun-καί-noun (TSKS [“‘the’-substantive-καί-substantive”]) in the very assertion itself (2 Thess 1:12; Titus 2:13; 2 Pet 1:1).  Occasionally, Acts 20:28; Gal 2:20; Eph 5:5; Col 2:2; 1 John 5:20; and Jude 4 are also listed as explicit texts—and these, too, involve the same syntactical form.5  This is where Granville Sharp enters the picture.  Sharp developed a grammatical principle in which he discussed the semantics of this very construction.  He then applied his “rule” to several christologically significant texts and argued that the construction could only be interpreted as affirming the deity of Christ.

But Sharp’s rule has been almost totally neglected, discounted, or misapplied in recent discussions on these passages. In light of this, our purpose in this essay is threefold: (1) to give a brief historical sketch of the articulation and discussion of Sharp’s canon, from Sharp to the present day; (2) to test the validity of Sharp’s rule against the data, both within the NT and elsewhere; and (3) to reassess the application of the rule to two christologically significant texts.

I. Granville Sharp and His 
Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article

A. Sharp’s Rule

In 1798 Granville Sharp published a monograph entitled, Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article in the Greek Text of the New Testament: Containing many New Proofs of the Divinity of Christ, from Passages which are wrongly Translated in the Common English Version6—a work which was to play the major role in applying TSKS to the christologically significant passages.  The slender volume (which, when originally published, contained less than sixty pages) had actually been written twenty years earlier,7 but remained dormant until a friend and scholar urged Sharp to get it into print.8  Most likely an outgrowth of his extensive treatise on the Trinity published in 1777,9 this little book was destined to become the center of a linguistic and theological storm and the only piece in biblical studies for which Sharp is remembered.

The Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article went through four editions in ten years.10  What may be of interest to note here is that the second and subsequent editions include excerpts from a lengthy rebuttal of Sharp’s Remarks by one pseudonymously named Gregory Blunt.11  The pun was not missed by Sharp: his last edition (1807) adds a twenty-six page preface (ix-xxxiv) in which he interacts with Blunt.  Several exchanges were more rhetorical than substantive, dealing with the word-play between the two surnames.

In this work Sharp articulated six principles of syntax involving the Greek article, though what has commonly become known as “Sharp’s rule” is the first of these.  It is the only rule which directly impacts the christologically significant passages and hence, “it is of much more consequence than the rest . . .”12  As the weapon by which Sharp made his theological jabs against Socinians, it is this rule which has been largely debated, misunderstood, and abused.  Sharp’s expanded definition of it is as follows.

When the copulative και connects two nouns of the same case, [viz. nouns (either substantive or adjective, or participles) of personal description, respecting office, dignity, affinity, or connexion, and attributes, properties, or qualities, good or ill], if the article , or any of its cases, precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun or participle: i.e. it denotes a farther description of the first-named person . . . .13

In the statement of this rule, Sharp only discussed substantives (i.e., nouns, substantival adjectives, substantival participles) of personal description, not those which referred to things, and only in the singular, not the plural.  But whether he intended the rule to apply to impersonal nouns and/or plurals can hardly be determined from this definition.  As well, he did not clearly exclude proper names from the rule’s application.  However, a perusal of his monograph reveals that he felt the rule could be applied absolutely only to personal, singular, non-proper nouns.  For example, two pages later he points out that “there is no exception or instance of the like mode of expression, that I know of, which necessarily requires a construction different from what is here laid down, EXCEPT the nouns be proper names, or in the plural number; in which case there are many exceptions . . . .”14  Later on he explicitly states that impersonal constructions are within the purview of his second, third, fifth, and sixth rules, but not the first.15  In an appendix Sharp chastises Blunt for bringing in impersonal constructions as exceptions to the rule.16

In other words, in the construction article-noun-καί-noun, Sharp delineated four requirements which he felt needed to be met if the two nouns were necessarily to be seen as having the same referent:17 both nouns must be (1) personal—i.e., they must refer to a person, not a thing; (2) common epithets—i.e., not proper names; (3) in the same case;18 and (4) singular in number.19  The significance of these requirements can hardly be overestimated, for those who have misunderstood Sharp’s rule have done so almost without exception because they were unaware of the restrictions that Sharp set forth.20

The rationale for such strictures will be discussed later; suffice it to say here that a proper articulation of Sharp’s rule includes them.  The rule may or may not be valid, but any accurate representation of it must include these criteria.

The bulk of Sharp’s Remarks was a discussion of eight christologically significant texts (Acts 20:28; Eph 5:5; 2 Thess 1:12; 1 Tim 5:21; 2 Tim 4:1; Titus 2:13; 2 Pet 1:1; Jude 4), encompassing more than two-thirds of the body of the work.21  Sharp backed up the validity of his arguments with twenty-five non-christologically-significant examples which he believed were undisputed in their semantic force.22  Included in his disquisition are the following illustrations.23

2 Cor 1:3 (bis) Εὐλογητὸς ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ, ὁ πατὴρ τῶν οἰκτιρμῶν καὶ θεός

2 Cor 11:31 ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου  ᾿Ιησοῦ

Eph 6:21 Τυχικὸς ὁ ἀγαπητὸς ἀδελφὸς καὶ πιστὸς διάκονος

Phil 4:20 τῷ δὲ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ ἡμῶν ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων

Heb 3:1 τὸν ἀπόστολον καὶ ἀρχιερέα τῆς ὁμολογίας ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦν

Jas 3:9 ἐν αὐτῇ εὐλογοῦμεν τὸν κύριον καὶ πατέρα

2 Pet 2:20 ἐν ἐπιγνώσει τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

Rev 16:15 μακάριος ὁ γρηγορῶν καὶ τηρῶν τὰ ἱμάτια αὐτοῦ

Sharp’s judgment was that in these texts “the sense is so plain that there can be no controversy.”24  As is evident even without a context, his assessment was correct.  None of the rest of Sharp’s examples required any discussion either, as is obvious from the reactions to his work: no one disputed the validity of these examples.  A number of other things were disputed, however, especially the validity of such texts for the christologically pregnant passages.

B. Nearly Two Centuries of Abuse

The reactions to Sharp’s rule over the next two centuries cannot be easily summarized.  Due to time constraints, our discussion will necessarily be truncated.25  There are relatively few major players in this debate, and the one who said the least made the greatest impact.  But suffice it to say here that not one of Sharp’s critics ever demonstrated an invalid example within the pages of the New Testament. 

Gregory Blunt argued essentially from English grammar.  His principal argument was a tacit syllogism:

Greek and English are identical with respect to the use of the article. 
There are many exceptions to Sharp’s rule in English. 
Therefore, his rule is invalid in Greek.

Blunt thus spent an inordinate amount of time producing English examples (e.g., “the King and Queen”) that seemed to violate the rule.  He held to an explicit connection between Greek and English in terms even of surface structure, making typically prescriptive statements about how the Greek article must behave.26  To such arguments Sharp retorted, “he has not been able to produce against the Rules one single example from the Greek text of the New Testament, (the only true criterion of their truth) . . . .”27 

Calvin Winstanley’s criticisms were taken far more seriously.  He was able to produce four classes of exceptions to Sharp’s rule in Greek literature outside the NT—exceptions that we will address later.28  The second edition of his Vindication of Certain Passages in the Common English Version, published six years after Sharp’s death (1819), constitutes to this day the latest and most complete list of exceptions to Sharp’s rule.  We can enlarge on Winstanley’s list substantially.  However, it is far more difficult to enlarge on the categories of exceptions which he found.  Winstanley is to be regarded as the most formidable adversary of Sharp’s rule, but not the most influential. 

Three years after Winstanley’s book appeared, a volume dedicated to the usage of the Greek article was published.  The Doctrine of the Greek Article Applied to the Criticism and Illustration of the New Testament, written by the first Bishop of Calcutta, Thomas Fanshaw Middleton,29—a work still highly regarded among NT grammarians today30—gave an extensive treatment on the use of the article in classical Greek, followed by hundreds of pages of exegetical discussions of the article in the NT.  Middleton clearly felt the force of Sharp’s rule and lent it credibility from the circle of philology.  He believed that Sharp’s canon was valid both for the NT and classical Greek.  In addition, he clearly understood the restrictions of the rule to personal, singular, non-proper nouns.31

Although Middleton did not answer all of Winstanley’s objections to Sharp’s canon, he did articulate, in great detail, the nature and validity of the rule.  Now one hundred and fifty years old, Middleton’s treatment stands as the last clear statement of Sharp’s rule in any major work.  The question which concerns us now is, How did Sharp’s rule become neglected?

It is always a perilous venture to attempt a historical reconstruction over the demise of anything.  In this instance, however, a suggestion has already been put forth by another, and I find little in his assessment with which I can take issue.  In his essay on “The Greek Article and the Deity of Christ,” A. T. Robertson named Georg Benedict Winer32 as the catalyst behind the neglect of Sharp’s canon in application to christologically significant texts:33

A strange timidity seized some of the translators in the Jerusalem Chamber that is reproduced by the American Committee.  There is no hesitation in translating John i. 1 as the text has it.  Why boggle over 2 Peter i. 1?

The explanation is to be found in Winer’s Grammar (Thayer’s Edition, p. 130; W. F. Moulton’s (p. 162) [sic], where the author seeks by indirection to break the force of Granville Sharp’s rule by saying that in 2 Peter i. 1 “there is not even a pronoun with σωτῆρος.”  That is true, but it is quite beside the point.  There is no pronoun with σωτῆρος in 2 Peter i. 11, precisely the same idiom, where no one doubts the identity of “Lord and Saviour.”  Why refuse to apply the same rule to 2 Peter i. 1, that all admit, Winer included, to be true of 2 Peter i. 11? . . .  The simple truth is that Winer’s anti-Trinitarian prejudice overruled his grammatical rectitude in his remark about 2 Peter i. 1.

. . . It is plain, therefore, that Winer has exerted a pernicious influence, from the grammatical standpoint, on the interpretation of 2 Peter i. 1, and Titus ii. 13.  Scholars who believed in the Deity of Christ have not wished to claim too much and to fly in the face of Winer, the great grammarian, for three generations.34

Winer’s assessment of Titus 2:13 is also worth quoting:

In Tit. ii. 13. . . considerations derived from Paul’s system of doctrine lead me to believe that σωτῆρος is not a second predicate, co-ordinate with θεοῦ. . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

[In n 2 at the bottom of the same page] In the above remarks it was not my intention to deny that, in point of grammar, σωτῆρος ἡμῶν may be regarded as a second predicate, jointly depending on the article τοῦ; but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul’s writings that this apostle cannot have called Christ the great God induced me to show that there is no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause καὶ σωτ. . . . Χριστοῦ by itself, as referring to a second subject.35

What is most interesting about Winer’s comments on these two texts is that though he advances no real grammatical arguments, because he was a highly regarded grammarian he was apparently able to cancel out, by the intimidation of his own opinion, the use of Sharp’s rule in these passages.  As we will see, this statement virtually sounded the death knell to Sharp’s principle.  Ironically, what Winstanley could not do in a tightly argued, compact book of fifty-five pages (all in eight-point type), Winer did in a single footnote!

As Robertson pointed out, Winer was the catalyst behind the neglect of Sharp’s rule.  His suggestion can be easily confirmed.  For example, J. H. Moulton is strongly influenced by Winer’s comment on Titus 2:13, reading it as though borne from a sober grammatical judgment.  In his Prolegomena he writes: “We cannot discuss here the problem of Tit 213, for we must, as grammarians, leave the matter open: see WM 162, 156n.”36  Other scholars have followed suit.  Some explicitly cite Winer as their authority for doubting the grammatical perspicuity of the construction;37 others, though not mentioning Winer by name, consider the grammar to be vague.38

Winer’s influence, then, seems sufficiently to account for the neglect of Sharp’s rule in discussions of the christologically significant passages, but what about the abuse of the rule?  Almost without exception, those who seem to be acquainted with Sharp’s canon and agree with its validity misunderstand it and abuse it.  This widespread misunderstanding shows no partiality—grammarians, exegetes, and theologians alike are culpable.  Typically, the rule is usually perceived to extend to plural and impersonal constructions—in spite of the fact that Sharp restricted the rule to personal singular nouns.  What are the reasons for such abuse?  For one thing, as we have seen, the statement of Sharp’s rule is not clear—only an examination of his monograph explicitly reveals his requirement of personal singular nouns.  Secondly, the last clear statement of the limitations of Sharp’s canon in any major work was published over one hundred and fifty years ago—in Thomas Fanshaw Middleton’s Doctrine of the Greek Article.39 

For whatever reason, modern grammarians have perpetuated the ambiguity of the original statement, bypassing Middleton’s clear articulation of the rule altogether.  To take but three examples: A. T. Robertson, in his large grammar, discusses the TSKS construction quite extensively.  We have already seen that he was well acquainted with Sharp’s rule—in fact, he was an adamant defender of its validity.40  However, without interacting with either Sharp or Middleton on the point, he felt that the rule applied to impersonal nouns as well as personal.41  Second, Dana and Mantey—on whose grammar many American students have been weaned—actually reproduce (almost) verbatim Sharp’s rule, but neglect to specify more clearly the limitations.42  And third, in his recent intermediate grammar dedicated to the memory of Granville Sharp, Stanley Porter states, “Unfortunately, this rule has been widely misunderstood.”43  But Porter both misstates the rule (ignoring the restriction to personal substantives) and, consequently, applies Sharp's canon to an impersonal construction (τὸ πλάτος καὶ μῆκος καὶ ὕψος καὶ βάθος in Eph 3:18).44  Robertson, Dana and Mantey, and Porter are simply the tip of the iceberg of grammarians’ misunderstanding of Sharp’s canon.45

The reason, therefore, for the abuse of the rule seems to be that few have taken the time to read Sharp’s Remarks or Middleton’s Doctrine of the Greek Article—in spite of the fact that “Sharp’s rule” is still, here and there, mentioned with approbation.  And the reason that few have actually read Sharp or Middleton,46 it seems, is either inaccessibility or the natural tendency in biblical studies to think that only the most recent literature makes much of a contribution.47

The upshot of the present-day imprecise knowledge of Sharp’s limitations is that those who invoke his canon on behalf of the argument for Christ’s deity in Titus 2:13, etc., since they include plurals and impersonals in the rule, are unable to regard the rule as absolute.  Since these same scholars find exceptions to what they perceive to be the rule, they can only regard it as a general principle.  For example, Murray J. Harris, in his otherwise excellent and detailed article, “Titus 2:13 and the Deity of Christ” (in F. F. Bruce’s second Festschrift), makes much of the argument that “two co-ordinate nouns referring to the same person are customarily linked by a single article.”48 Yet he gives in defense of this proposition three proof texts—two of which involve nouns in the plural (which even he concedes do not speak of identity and thus they contradict his version of Sharp’s rule)!49  Harris is hardly alone in his abuse of Sharp’s canon; indeed, he simply follows in a long train of exegetes who have been unaware of the restrictions laid down by Sharp.50

To sum up, the validity of Sharp’s principle was called into question, on theological grounds, by the great grammarian of the nineteenth century, Georg Benedict Winer.  His stature as a grammarian, even though he spoke in this instance outside his realm, has apparently brought about the neglect of the rule in the vast majority of studies of these passages in this century.  Consequently, and certainly related to this, the rule has been abused even by those who agree with its validity,51 because the limitations which Sharp laid down are almost never observed (in large measure because they have not been printed in any major work in the last one hundred and fifty years).52

II. Linguistic-Phenomenological Analysis

A. The Nature of the Construction in General

Homer’s terse caveat, put into the mouth of Laocoon the priest, “Beware of Greeks bearing gifts,” was not meant to apply to the gift of the article.53  For as Chantraine argues, not only was the Greek language transformed when ὁ ἡ τό emerged from its pronominal cocoon and sprouted arthrous wings, but European intellectual life was profoundly ennobled by this gift of clarity bequeathed by Hellas.54  Although one might quibble with Chantraine’s assertion that the article was the greatest linguistic gift that western civilization received from the Greeks, there is no question that it belongs on the short list of prized treasures.  The reason this gift is so exquisite is that the article intrinsically has the ability to conceptualize, for its principal function is not determinative but notional.  Or, as Rosén has put it, the article “has the power of according nominal status to any expression to which it is appended, and, by this token, of conveying the status of a concept to whatever ‘thing’ is denoted by that expression, for the reason that whatever is conceived by the mind—so it would appear—becomes a concept as a result of one’s faculty to call it by a name.”55

To be sure, the Greek article does serve a determining function at times.  But a hierarchy of usage would suggest that determination has a tertiary role: after conceptualization and identification (e.g., as in anaphora) comes determination.  To argue that the article functions primarily to make something definite is to commit the “phenomenological fallacy”—viz. that of making ontological statements based on truncated evidence.56

With reference to the TSKS construction, conceptualization is of foremost importance.57  That is to say, the primary thrust of the article in TSKS is to bring together two substantives into a conceptual unity.  This is true of all such constructions: the single article connotes some sort of unity.  When mere unity is involved, the article serves to bracket the substantives, linking them together into a larger category which is understated by its very implicitness.  The least that can be said is that two (or more) entirely distinct groups are in view.  Thus οἱ Φαρισαῖοι καὶ Σαδδουκαῖοι (e.g., in Matt 16:1) unites two otherwise non-congenial groups to indicate their combined opposition to Jesus.  In Luke 21:12 the disciples are to be handed over “to synagogues and prisons” (παραδιδόντες εἰς τὰς συναγωγὰς καὶ φυλακάς), with the connotation that both locations would be hostile to them.  In Matt 27:56 James and Joseph are united by blood (Μαρία ἡ τοῦ  ᾿Ιακώβου καὶ  ᾿Ιωσὴφ μήτηρ).  In Rev 1:9 the Seer of Patmos has in common with his audience both their present trials and future glory (συγκοινωνὸς ἐν τῇ θλίψει καὶ βασιλείᾳ).  Even when the substantives have an identical referent the notional power of the article is not subdued.  In Heb 12:2, for example, to speak of Jesus as “the founder and perfecter of the faith” (τὸν τῆς πίστεως ἀρχηγὸν καὶ τελειωτήν) is to associate two ideas in a new way which a single noun could not do.58  If one bypasses this fundamental value of the article—a value especially utilized when the article modifies more than a single word59—misunderstanding to the point of reductio ad absurdum frequently results.

Such misunderstandings have permeated the vast bulk of studies of the TSKS construction.  The muddled thinking over the semantics of the TSKS is constantly mired in confusion over three terms: unity, equality, and identity.  But to understand properly these terms, we must first define two others, “sense” and “referent.”  Unless this difference is carefully noted, it will be impossible to assess properly the semantics of the construction.  Sense and referent may be distinguished as follows: “the referent is the extra-linguistic entity about which something is being asserted, while the sense is the linguistic meaning of the assertion itself.”60  In other words, “The sense is what we are saying, the referent what we are saying it about.”61  Thus, for example, in the construction ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Eph 1:3), though θεός and πατήρ do not have the same sense, they do have the same referent.  The point of Sharp’s rule is identity of referent, not identity of sense.

When we speak of the semantics of the TSKS we are speaking of the relation of the referents to one another.  Keeping this in mind helps us to avoid the pitfalls of former analyses.  Mere unity of referents would mean that both terms refer to discrete entities yet a larger conceptual unit than either one could express by itself.  Thus, for example, in Acts 17:12 Luke tells of the conversion of “the women . . . and . . . men” (τῶν . . . γυναικῶν . . . καὶ ἀνδρῶν).  A coalition of spiritual experience explains the lone article.  In Eph 3:18 apparently the love of God is being described in figurative language (τὸ πλάτος καὶ μῆκος καὶ ὕψος καὶ βάθος).  Although each term refers to God’s love, each refers to a different aspect of it and thus the referents are not identical.62 

On the other end of the spectrum is identity of referent.  When this is meant, both substantives refer to exactly the same entity.  Thus, for example, in Eph 2:14 Christ is “the one who made both one and who broke down the middle wall of partition” (ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας).  In Matt 12:22 (v.l.) it is the same man who is both blind and lame (τὸν τυφλὸν καὶ κωφόν).  In Luke 20:37 there is only one who is God of Abraham and God of Isaac and God of Jacob (τὸν θεὸν  ᾿Αβραὰμ καὶ θεὸν  ᾿Ισαὰκ καὶ θεὸν  ᾿Ιακώβ). 

Equality of referents is not the same as identity.  In most instances it is a subtheme of unity.  Thus, once again, the dimensions in Eph 3:18 (breadth, length, height, depth) are all potentially equal to each other (especially if each is infinite), but are not identical to each other (height does not refer to the same thing as length).  In Matt 16:21 three groups are linked under one article (τῶν πρεσβυτέρων καὶ ἀρχιερέων καὶ γραμματέων) since they were the three distinct parties which comprised the Sanhedrin.63  Some have erroneously insisted this construction fits the Granville Sharp rule because these three groups all refer to the Sanhedrin.  However, to say that A + B + C = D is not the same as saying A = B = C, the latter equation being what the Granville Sharp rule asserts.)  When two discrete entities are united in a TSKS construction, some sort of connotative equality for the purposes at hand can be frequently assumed.    Thus in Matt 27:56  James and Joseph are united as sons of the same mother (Μαρία ἡ τοῦ  ᾿Ιακώβου καὶ  ᾿Ιωσὴφ μήτηρ).  In Acts 13:1 the gifted leaders of the early church are listed under one article (ὅ τε Βαρναβᾶς καὶ Συμεὼν ὁ καλούμενος Νίγερ, καὶ Λούκιος ὁ Κυρηναῖος, Μαναήν τε ÔΗρῴδου τοῦ τετραάρχου σύντροφος καὶ Σαῦλος).64 In the next verse two men, Barnabas and Saul, are set apart by the Holy Spirit for  a special task and are accordingly marked out with a single article (  ᾿Αφορίσατε δή μοι τὸν Βαρναβᾶν καὶ Σαῦλον). 

We can see then that the essential value of the TSKS construction involves unity.  Whether more than that can be said for the personal singular construction now needs to be explored.

B. The Construction Involving Personal, Singular, Non-Proper Substantives

In order to evaluate properly the validity of Sharp’s canon, especially as it relates to christologically significant passages, several questions need to be addressed: Why the limitations to personal, singular, non-proper substantives?  What do those constructions which do not fit these requirements indicate?  Is Sharp’s rule valid within the NT?  Do all the christologically significant texts fit the restrictions Sharp laid down?  Is the principle valid outside the NT?  And, finally, what arguments, as well as exceptions, can be advanced against Sharp’s rule—and do these overturn the rule as it relates to the christologically significant texts?

As we saw earlier, the major battle lines over Sharp’s rule were theological, syntactical, and linguistic.  Theologically, opponents of Sharp’s canon felt that the rule was not applicable to the christologically pregnant passages.  An examination of such texts and the validity of Sharp’s canon for them will be taken up in the next section.  Syntactically, Calvin Winstanley in particular brought forth TSKS constructions outside the NT which fit the requirements of Sharp’s principle but did not bear the same semantics.  These, too, will be examined in the next section as they are most relevant for the christologically significant texts.  Linguistically, several arguments were marshaled against the restrictions Sharp laid down (viz. that the substantives had to be singular, personal, and not proper names if they were necessarily to have the same referent).  The linguistic issue will be taken up here as it affects the question of whether such restrictions are merely a posteriori descriptions of NT usage—and thus perhaps coincidental phenomenological descriptions—or valid ontological principles which have applicability to a wide range of Greek literature.

1. A Proper Semantic Grid. 

Both the linguistic and phenomenological evidence which follows suggests that Sharp and Middleton were on the right track.  As we noted earlier, T. F. Middleton, the first Greek grammarian to affirm the validity of Sharp’s rule, attempted to give the rationale behind the limitations which Sharp had laid down.  He argued:

We are, therefore, to inquire what there is inherent in the excluded Nouns to cause so remarkable a difference. . . .

. . . [Regarding impersonal nouns,] distinct real essences cannot be conceived to belong to the same thing; nor can distinct nominal essences, without manifest contradiction, be affirmed of it.  Essence is single, peculiar, and incommunicable . . .65

The reason why proper names are excepted is evident at once: for it is impossible that John and Thomas, the names of two distinct persons, should be predicated of an individual.66 

He further points out that an impersonal object can, of course, be described by two or more substantives, but that such is extremely rare.  In a lengthy footnote he reasons that

Nouns expressive of inanimate substances seem to have this difference, that though they have attributes (and we have no idea of any thing which has not) yet those attributes, from their inertness and quiescence, make so little impression on the observer, that he does not commonly abstract them from his idea of the substance, and still less does he lose sight of the substance, and use its name as expressive of the attribute.  Add to this, that to characterize persons by the names of things would be violent and unnatural, especially when two or more things wholly different in their natures are to be associated for the purpose: and to characterize any thing by the names of other things would be “confusion worse confounded.”67

Middleton distinguishes between substances and abstract ideas, though he argues that abstract ideas are also excluded from the rule for reasons similar to those related to proper names.68  He concludes his discussion of impersonal nouns and proper names by stating that “Thus far it appears, then, that the limitations of the rule are not arbitrary, but necessary, and that the several kinds of excluded Nouns have one disqualifying property belonging to them all; which is, that no two of any class are in their nature predicable of the same individual    . . .”69

Regarding plural substantives Middleton concludes that plurals may, at times, fit the rule (contrary to impersonal nouns and proper names), but that there will also be many exceptions:

. . . what reason can be alleged, why the practice in Plural Attributives should differ from that in Singular ones?  The circumstances are evidently dissimilar.  A single individual may stand in various relations and act in divers capacities. . . But this does not happen in the same degree with respect to Plurals.  Though one individual may act, and frequently does act, in several capacities, it is not likely that a multitude of individuals should all of them act in the same several capacities. . .70

From a modern linguistic perspective, Middleton’s general instincts are surely correct.  He has understood intuitively the distinction between sense and referent, as well as between denotative and connotative meaning.  Denotation is distinguished from connotation in that “Denotation is the term used for the relationship which exists between words and the corresponding entities in the world . . . ,”71 while connotation “move[s] away from objectivity to subjectivity,”72  and is “the suggestion of a meaning apart from the thing it explicitly names or describes.”73 

When one begins to think in such categories, he or she notices that “strictly speaking, a proper name is a word with denotation but no connotation, reference but no sense . . .”74  Hence, two proper names in the TSKS construction could not fit the Granville Sharp rule for proper names are used merely to identify (and therefore distinguish), not describe,75 while common personal nouns both identify and describe.76  The only conceivable exception to this would be something like “the Simon and Peter” in which both names would refer to one individual.  Such an expression, however, would seem to be just as awkward in Greek (it never occurs in the NT) as it is in English (cf., e.g., Σαῦλος . . . ὁ καὶ Παῦλος [Acts 13:9], which is the normal way for joining two proper names that have the same referent).  There is a further issue with proper names which at least deserves mention here: How can one tell whether a name is proper?  Words such as θεός and σωτήρ were frequently asserted to be proper names or at least quasi-proper names by Sharp’s adversaries.  In this way they were able to deny such passages as Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 as fitting Sharp’s requirements.  Suffice it to say here that we do not regard such words as proper names; a defense of this view will come in a later section.

With reference to impersonal nouns, a similar pattern emerges: most impersonal nouns, by themselves (i.e., without adjuncts), have zero or minimal connotative value.  They generally have an obvious referential meaning, just as proper names do.  In such cases, two impersonal nouns in the TSKS construction would not be expected to have an identical referent.  For example, in 2 Cor 6:7 the apostle speaks of the weapons of righteousness to be utilized by the right hand and the left (διὰ τῶν ὅπλων τῆς δικαιοσύνης τῶν δεξιῶν καὶ ἀριστερῶν).  Although the two are closely connected, they obviously do not have the same referent.  Nevertheless, impersonal nouns may differ from proper names: (1) when the terms used are abstract (and therefore do not refer to particular entities)—such as “truth” or “authority”; (2) when two (roughly) synonymous terms stand in apposition (e.g., “Larus argentatus, that is, herring gull”), though such constructions would most naturally drop the connective; or (3) when there is referential overlap of some sort (e.g., “furniture and tables and chairs”), though this would most naturally occur only in plural constructions.  In these three instances, impersonal nouns are still not similar to the personal singular nouns which fit Sharp’s canon.  For example, when Paul speaks of Epaphroditus as “my brother and fellow-worker” (τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργόν) in Phil 2:25, “brother” is not synonymous with “fellow-worker,” though both terms have the same referent.  Unlike impersonal concrete nouns, it is inconceivable that one person could “overlap” with another—two personal singular terms can only refer either to two distinct individuals or to the same individual.  Further, unlike abstract nouns, “brother” refers to a particular object.  Impersonal nouns are seen, then, to be semantically similar to proper names in terms of denotation and referential meaning; and when they occasionally depart from this pattern they do not normally move closer to personal common nouns in their semantic force.  Hence, although neither Sharp nor Middleton saw impersonal nouns in the TSKS construction as having the same referent, we must admit that this is possible, though more than likely of rather infrequent occurrence and adhering to certain semantic guidelines.

Finally, with reference to plural substantives, since groups rather than individuals are in view, the probability of some sort of referential overlap puts such constructions on a different plane than personal singular nouns.  Nevertheless, as Middleton admits, they could at times have an identical referent.

Antecedently, then, Middleton makes out a solid case on a semantic level for distinguishing personal singular nouns from other kinds of substantives.  Of course, this is merely a negative argument: it says nothing about the necessity of personal singular nouns invariably having an identical referent. 

To sum up: by ruling impersonal, plural, and proper nouns as outside the scope of his principle, Sharp demonstrated an intuitive sensitivity to the semantics of the TSKS construction which has eluded most of his modern-day advocates.  Middleton then gave articulation to Sharp’s intuition.  The reasons for such strictures seem to be inherent within the language itself.  It has to be determined, of course, whether the rule is valid even within such limitations.

2. The Empirical Data

a. The Phenomena in the New Testament

If we exempt the several christologically significant passages from consideration, we can readily see the validity of Sharp’s rule in the NT.  For example, in Eph 1:3 we read of “the God and Father” (ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατήρ); in Jas 3:9  we see “the Lord and Father” (τὸν κύριον καὶ πατέρα); Mark 6:3 refers to Jesus as “the son of Mary and brother of James” (ὁ υἱὸς τῆς Μαρίας καὶ ἀδελφὸς  ᾿Ιακώβου); in Eph 2:14 the author speaks of Christ as “the one who made both [groups] [into] one and who broke down the dividing wall” (ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας);77 in Phil 2:25 the apostle mentions “Epaphroditus, my brother and fellow-worker and fellow-soldier” ( ᾿Επαφρόδιτον τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργὸν καὶ συστρατιώτην μου); Heb 3:1 refers to Jesus as “the apostle and high priest of our confession” (τὸν ἀπόστολον καὶ ἀρχιερέα τῆς ὁμολογίας ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦς); in John 9:8 the evangelist records the healing of a blind “man who used to sit and beg” (ὁ καθήμενος καὶ προσαιτῶν); 2 Pet 1:11 promises entrance into the eternal kingdom “of our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ” (ἡ εἴσοδος εἰς τὴν αἰώνιον βασιλείαν τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ).  In each of these instances, the obvious sense of the passage is that only one person is in view.  Further, this is so both for nouns,78 participles,79 and adjectives,80 as well as combinations.81  Not only this, but intervening words do not invalidate Sharp’s rule.  In all there are fifty personal singular TSKS constructions which encompass non-constituent elements.82  These alien words ranged from postpositive particles and adjectives, to genitive adjuncts and prepositional phrases, and even embedded verb phrases.  On six occasions a possessive pronoun was found with the first substantive.83

For the sake of completeness, the relevant passages are presented below, according to the type of substantive involved.

Nouns in the TSKS Personal Construction

Mark 6:3 οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ τέκτων, ὁ υἱὸς τῆς Μαρίας καὶ ἀδελφὸς  ᾿Ιακώβου

Luke 20:37 τὸν θεὸν  ᾿Αβραὰμ καὶ θεὸν  ᾿Ισαὰκ καὶ θεὸν  ᾿Ιακώβ

John 20:17 τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν

Rom 15:6 τὸν θεὸν καὶ πατέρα τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

1 Cor 15:24 τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρί

2 Cor 1:3 ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

2 Cor 1:3 ὁ πατὴρ τῶν οἰκτιρμῶν καὶ θεὸς πάσης παρακλήσεως

2 Cor 11:31 ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου  ᾿Ιησοῦ

Gal 1:4 τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν

Eph 1:3 ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

Eph 5:20 τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρί

Eph 6:21 Τυχικὸς ὁ ἀγαπητὸς ἀδελφὸς καὶ πιστὸς διάκονος

Phil 4:20 τῷ δὲ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ ἡμῶν

Col 4:7 Τυχικὸς ὁ ἀγαπητὸς ἀδελφὸς καὶ πιστὸς διάκονος καὶ σύνδουλος

1 Thess 1:3 τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν

1 Thess 3:11 ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ ἡμῶν

1 Thess 3:13 τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν

1 Tim 6:15 ὁ βασιλεὺς τῶν βασιλευόντων καὶ κύριος τῶν κυριευόντων

Heb 3:1 τὸν ἀπόστολον καὶ ἀρχιερέα τῆς ὁμολογίας ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦν

Heb 12:2 τὸν τῆς πίστεως ἀρχηγὸν καὶ τελειωτὴν  ᾿Ιησοῦν

Jas 1:27 τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρί

Jas 3:9 τὸν κύριον καὶ πατέρα

1 Pet 1:3 ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

1 Pet 2:25 τὸν ποιμένα καὶ ἐπίσκοπον τῶν ψυχῶν ὑμῶν

1 Pet 4:18 ὁ ἀσεβὴς καὶ ἁμαρτωλός

1 Pet 5:1 ὁ συμπρεσβύτερος καὶ μάρτυς

2 Pet 1:11 τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

2 Pet 2:20 τοῦ κυρίου [ἡμῶν] καὶ σωτῆρος  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

2 Pet 3:2 τοῦ κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος

2 Pet 3:18 τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

Jude 4 τὸν μόνον δεσπότην καὶ κύριον ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦν Χριστόν

Rev 1:6 τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ αὐτοῦ

Rev 1:9 ἐγὼV  ᾿Ιωάννης, ὁ ἀδελφὸς ὑμῶν καὶ συγκοινωνός

Participles in the TSKS Personal Construction

Matt 7:26 πᾶς ὁ ἀκούων μου τοὺς λόγους τούτους καὶ μὴ ποιῶν αὐτούς

Matt 13:20 οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ τὸν λόγον ἀκούων καὶ εὐθὺς μετὰ χαρᾶς λαμβάνων αὐτόν

Matt 27:40 ὁ καταλύων τὸν ναὸν καὶ ἐν τρισὶν ἡμέραις οἰκοδομῶν

Mark 15:29 ὁ καταλύων τὸν ναὸν καὶ οἰκοδομῶν

Luke 6:47 πᾶς ὁ ἐρχόμενος πρός με καὶ ἀκούων μου τῶν λόγων καὶ ποιῶν αὐτούς

Luke 6:49 ὁ δὲ ἀκούσας καὶ μὴ ποιήσας

Luke 12:21 ὁ θησαυρίζων ἑαυτῷ καὶ μὴ εἰς θεὸν πλουτῶν

Luke 16:18 πᾶς ὁ ἀπολύων τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ καὶ γαμῶν ἑτέραν μοιχεύει

John 5:24 ὁ τὸν λόγον μου ἀκούων καὶ πιστεύων

John 6:33 ὁ καταβαίνων ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καὶ ζωὴν διδούς

John 6:40 πᾶς ὁ θεωρῶν τὸν υἱὸν καὶ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον

John 6:45 πᾶς ὁ ἀκούσας παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ μαθὼν ἔρχεται πρὸς ἐμέ

John 6:54 ὁ τρώγων μου τὴν σάρκα καὶ πίνων μου τὸ αἷμα

John 6:56 ὁ τρώγων μου τὴν σάρκα καὶ πίνων μου τὸ αἷμα

John 8:50 ὁ ζητῶν καὶ κρίνων

John 9:8 οὐχ οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ καθήμενος καὶ προσαιτῶν…

John 11:2 ἦν δὲ Μαριὰμ ἡ ἀλείψασα τὸν κύριον μύρῳ καὶ ἐκμάξασα τοὺς πόδας αὐτοῦ

John 11:26 πᾶς ὁ ζῶν καὶ πιστεύων εἰς ἐμέ

John 12:48 ὁ ἀθετῶν ἐμὲ καὶ μὴ λαμβάνων τὰ ῥήματά μου

John 14:21 ὁ ἔχων τὰς ἐντολάς μου καὶ τηρῶν αὐτάς

Acts 10:35 ὁ φοβούμενος αὐτὸν καὶ ἐργαζόμενος δικαιοσύνην δεκτὸς αὐτῷ ἐστιν

Acts 15:38 τὸν ἀποστάντα ἀπ ᾿ αὐτῶν ἀπὸ Παμφυλίας καὶ μὴ συνελθόντα αὐτοῖς

1 Cor 11:29 ὁ γὰρ ἐσθίων καὶ πίνων

1 Cor 16:16 παντὶ τῷ συνεργοῦντι καὶ κοπιῶντι

2 Cor 1:21 ὁ δὲ βεβαιῶν ἡμᾶς σὺν ὑμῖν εἰς Χριστὸν καὶ χρίσας ἡμᾶς θεός

2 Cor 1:22 ὁ καὶ σφραγισάμενος ἡμᾶς καὶ δοὺς τὸν ἀρραβῶνα τοῦ πνεύματος

2 Cor 5:15 τῷ ὑπὲρ αὐτῶν ἀποθανόντι καὶ ἐγερθέντι

Gal 1:15 ὁ ἀφορίσας με ἐκ κοιλίας μητρός μου καὶ καλέσας

Gal 3:5 ὁ οὖν ἐπιχορηγῶν ὑμῖν τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ ἐνεργῶν δυνάμεις ἐν ὑμῖν

Eph 2:14 ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας

2 Thess 2:4 ὁ ἀντικείμενος καὶ ὑπεραιρόμενος ἐπὶ πάντα λεγόμενον θεόν

Heb 7:1 ὁ συναντήσας  ᾿Αβραὰμ ὑποστρέφοντι ἀπὸ τῆς κοπῆς τῶν βασιλέων καὶ εὐλογήσας αὐτόν

Jas 1:25 ὁ δὲ παρακύψας εἰς νόμον τέλειον τὸν τῆς ἐλευθερίας καὶ παραμείνας

1 John 2:4 ὁ λέγων ὅτι ςΕγνωκα αὐτόν, καὶ τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ μὴ τηρῶν, ψεύστης ἐστίν

1 John 2:9 ὁ λέγων ἐν τῷ φωτὶ εἶναι καὶ τὸν ἀδελφὸν αὐτοῦ μισῶν ἐν τῇ σκοτίᾳ ἐστίν

2 John 9 πᾶς ὁ προάγων καὶ μὴ μένων ἐν τῇ διδαχῇ τοῦ Χριστοῦ θεὸν οὐκ ἔχει

Rev 1:5 τῷ ἀγαπῶντι ἡμᾶς καὶ λύσαντι ἡμᾶς ἐκ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ἡμῶν

Rev 16:15 μακάριος ὁ γρηγορῶν καὶ τηρῶν τὰ ἱμάτια αὐτοῦ

Rev 22:8 κἀγὼ  ᾿Ιωάννης ὁ ἀκούων καὶ βλέπων ταῦτα

Adjectives in the TSKS Personal Construction

Acts 3:14 ὑμεῖς δὲ τὸν ἅγιον καὶ δίκαιον ἠρνήσασθε

Phlm 1 τῷ ἀγαπητῷ καὶ συνεργῷ ἡμῶν

1 Pet 4:18 ὁ ἀσεβὴς καὶ ἁμαρτωλός

Rev 3:17 σὺ εἶ ὁ ταλαίπωρος καὶ ἐλεεινὸς καὶ πτωχὸς καὶ τυφλὸς καὶ γυμνός

Mixed Elements in the TSKS Personal Construction

Phil 2:25 ᾿Επαφρόδιτον τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργὸν καὶ συστρατιώτην μου

1 Thess 3:2 Τιμόθεον, τὸν ἀδελφὸν ἡμῶν καὶ συνεργὸν τοῦ θεοῦ

1 Tim 5:5 ἡ δὲ ὄντως χήρα καὶ μεμονωμένη

The monotonous pattern of personal singular substantives in the TSKS construction indicating an identical referent immediately places such substantives in a different category from proper names, impersonal nouns, or plural nouns.  The statistics accentuate this difference: in this construction there are about a dozen personal proper names in the NT (none having an identical referent); close to fifty impersonal nouns (only one unambiguously having the same referent); more than seventy plural substantives (little more than a third having an identical referent); and eighty TSKS constructions fitting the structural requirements of the rule84 (the christologically significant texts excepted), all of which apparently having an identical referent.  It is evident that Sharp’s limitation to personal singular substantives does indeed have substance; he seems to have articulated a genuine principle of NT grammar.  But is his rule inviolable?  C. Kuehne, in his second article of a seven-part series entitled “The Greek Article and the Doctrine of Christ’s Deity,”85 discusses all the instances in the NT which meet the requirements for the rule.86  He summarizes his findings by stating that “Sharp claimed that his rule applied uniformly to such passages, and I indeed could not find a single exception.”87  Kuehne is not alone in his view of these texts.  None of Sharp’s adversaries was able to produce a single exception to his rule within the pages of the NT.  Calvin Winstanley, Sharp’s most able opponent, conceded that Sharp’s “first rule has a real foundation in the idiom of the language . . .”88  And later, he declares, “Now, Sir, if your rule and principles of criticism must be permitted to close up every other source of illustration, there is an end of all farther enquiry . . .”89—an obvious concession that, apart from the christologically significant texts, Winstanley could produce no exceptions within the NT corpus.  Finally, he admits as much when he writes, “There are, you say, no exceptions, in the New Testament, to your rule; that is, I suppose, unless these particular texts [i.e., the ones Sharp used to adduce Christ’s deity] be such. . . . it is nothing surprising to find all these particular texts in question appearing as exceptions to your rule, and the sole exceptions . . . in the New Testament . . .”90  We must conclude, then, that (suspending judgment on the christologically significant texts) Sharp’s rule is indeed an inviolable canon of NT syntactical usage.91

b. The Phenomena in Extra-NT Greek Literature

Outside of the NT, what confirmation do we have of the validity of Sharp’s canon?  At least four strands of confirmation can be mentioned.  The first two deal with the construction in general; the last two with the expressions found in the christologically significant texts (and will be dealt with in the next section).

Classical Usage. In the debates that raged over the publication of Sharp’s monograph in the first decades of the nineteenth century, many scholars reread the classical Greek authors with an eye toward this particular construction.  None apparently did as thorough a job as Middleton.  In his Doctrine of the Greek Article, he devotes the first 120 pages to showing the usage of the article in classical Greek as an illustration of its use within the NT.92  The rest of his five-hundred-plus page volume is concerned specifically with the NT text which he marches through seriatum—from Matthew through Revelation.  In the NT portion of his work he spends several pages on Sharp’s controversial passages—and affirms the rule in Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1, and Eph 5:593 (in this last text, his affirmation is due more to the use of this text in patristic literature than to Sharp’s canon per se).  In the first part of his work, however, he has dedicated fifteen pages (56-70) of proof in order to demonstrate the validity of the rule in classical Greek.  To illustrate his point, he cites texts from such authors as Plutarch, Demosthenes, Plato, Aeschylus, Herodotus, and Aristophanes.  For example, Plutarch says that “Roscius, the son and heir of the deceased was vexed” ( ῾Ρώσκιος ὁ υἱὸς καὶ κληρονόμονος τοῦ τεθνηκότος ἠγανάκτει);94 Demosthenes speaks of himself as both advisor and orator (ὁ σύμβουλος καὶ ῥήτωρ ἐγώ);95 Aeschylus says that Demosthenes is a “meddler and slanderer” (ὁ περίεργος καὶ συκοφάντης Δημοσθενής).96

To be sure, Middleton does list some exceptions—though he feels that they are all capable of explanation and do not mitigate the rule.  He concludes the discussion by stating,

Having thus investigated the canon, and having explained the ground of its limitations and exceptions, I may be permitted to add, that Mr. Sharp’s application of it to the New Testament is in strict conformity with the usage of Greek writers, and with the Syntax of the Greek Tongue; and that few of the passages [viz., those which appear to involve proper names] which he has corrected in our common version can be defended without doing violence to the obvious and undisputed meaning of the plainest sentences which profane writers supply.97

We will, of course, turn to those exceptions which Middleton listed, but our point here is that he found the rule to be consistently valid for Greek outside the NT.

Other grammarians of classical Greek, who presumably have no acquaintance with Sharp’s rule, nevertheless give something of a subconscious stamp of approval on its validity.  In his section entitled “Repetition and Non-Repetition of the Article,” Gildersleeve98 gives a score of illustrations, all but one of which are other than personal singular constructions.  As in the NT, these form a conceptual unity but do not involve the same referent.99  The lone personal singular construction does not violate the rule.100  Kühner-Gerth preface several illustrations of the TSKS construction by stating that “wenn zwei oder mehr Substantive durch καί oder τε . . καί mit einander verbunden werden, so wird der Artikel entweder bei jedem wiederholt . . . oder er wird nicht wiederholt; alsdann werden die einzelnen Begriffe als zu einer Gesamtvorstellung verbunden betrachtet.”101  In this second category, they give almost two full pages of illustrations, most of which involve plural substantives or impersonal nouns in the TSKS construction and which point to a unity of referents but not an identical referent.102  In addition, they mention examples of the personal singular construction, only one of which is an exception to Sharp’s rule.  Yet, this lone example (found in Herodotus, Histories 4.71) did not escape Middleton’s eye: indeed, he discusses it at length and finds it to be wholly dissimilar to other personal singular constructions.103  Smyth tells us that “a single article, used with the first of two or more nouns connected by and, produces the effect of a single notion . . .”104  None of his examples involve the same referent, but neither are any of them personal and singular.  Schwyzer-Debrunner discuss only impersonal constructions which merely form a Gesamtvorstellung.105

All in all, the discussions of the personal singular constructions are rather thin in the standard classical grammars.  Yet, this is to be expected since they only speak of a conceptual unity, not of a referential identity.106   We defer, then, to Middleton’s judgment concerning the usage in classical Greek, viz., that Sharp’s canon “is in strict conformity with the usage of [classical] Greek writers.”

Usage in the Non-Literary Papyri.  Of course, it will be conceded that Middleton’s research was almost solely shut up to classical Greek.  The question which concerns us here is, If NT grammar is more like that of the non-literary koine documents than the classical authors (an assumption we make for the sake of argument),107 how valid is Sharp’s canon in these vulgar writings?  If it is frequently disregarded, then we might argue that Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 are mere slips of the pen or that they only serve to illustrate that the koine writers were less refined in their use of the article than were the classical authors.

The evidence, however, suggests otherwise.  First, studies on the use of the article in the papyri demonstrate that even in this refined and subtle area of the Greek language, the non-literary writers have a good deal of sophistication.  The very fact that Mayser, for example, can arrange his treatment of the article in the Ptolemaic papyri along traditional lines—and that he constantly cites the standard classical grammars as in agreement with the usage in the papyri—is an implicit argument that these non-literary documents are not haphazard in their use of the article.108  Völker, whose first volume on the papyri is occupied only with the article, makes the point repeatedly that the papyri, even though on a different literary level than Attic Greek, still use the article in substantially the same way.109  And Eakin, in his study of the first four volumes of the Oxyrhynchus papyri, concludes by saying that “Perhaps the most important point which the evidence accumulated tends to enforce is the need of caution in assuming hap-hazard [sic] irregularity in the use of the article by κοινή writers—even those who wrote without a thought of being ‘literary.’”110  Earlier in his essay he argued:

It would be a great mistake, however, to suppose that even such busy, matter-of-fact people as the writers of these non-literary papyri used the article with indifference.  I have noted at least two cases where the article had at first been omitted and later inserted above the line. . . .  In neither of these cases would the omission have been a serious grammatical offence, but evidently the writer considered the matter important enough that a correction should be made.111

Hence, in general, we can say that the use of the article in the papyri conforms pretty much to Attic standards—and yet, it is still below the level achieved in the NT.112

Secondly, and more specifically, is the semantic function of the TSKS construction in the papyri.  The basic database for this paper was the first two volumes of Select Papyri in LCL.113  These volumes were chosen because the documents the editors employ are representative of a broad spectrum of Egyptian papyri—both in age and geography (i.e., Hunt and Edgar do not just include the papyri from Oxyrhynchus).  Scores of examples of the TSKS construction were discovered in these two volumes.  Remarkably, only one possible exception to Sharp’s rule was discovered  in over five hundred pages of Greek text.114  A single referent, as in the NT, is uniformly indicated by the personal singular construction.  For example, P. Grenf. ii. 87. 10-11 speaks of “the . . . elder and . . . flax-worker” (τῷ πρεσβυτέρῳ καὶ . . . στιππουργῷ); P. Tebt. 392. 17 refers to one man as “the husband . . . and brother” (ὁ ἀνήρ . . . καὶ ἀδελφός); P. Eleph. 2.13 pronounces judgment against “him who is insubordinate and does not act” (ἐκ τοῦ ἀτακτοῦντος καὶ μὴ ποιοῦντος); in BGU 423.1 a son addresses his father as both “father and lord” (τῶι πατρὶ καὶ κυρίῳ); in P. Oxy. 528.1 a man writes to his “sister and lady” (τῇ ἀδελφῇ καὶ κυρίᾳ); a brother is addressed as “my master and beloved brother” (τῷ δεσπότῃ μου καὶ ἀγαπητῷ ἀδελφῷ) in P. Lond. 417.1;115 in P. Oxy. 925.2-3 a substantival adjective is used in the construction ὁ ἀληθινὸς φιλάνθρωπος καὶ δημιουργός (“the true benevolent one and creator”).116  We might also note that a common refrain, “the eternal Augustus and Imperator” (τοῦ αἰωνίου Αὐγούστου καὶ Αὐτοκράτορος), always involved an identical referent, even though “Augustus” might be labeled a   quasi-proper name.117  However, when a proper name was joined to “Augustus,” two individuals were in view.118 

Altogether there were forty-one constructions which fit the requirements for Sharp’s rule.119 Only one such construction was in apparent violation of Sharp’s canon.  On the other hand, there were scores of TSKS constructions in the papyri which were either plural or impersonal.  In general, they followed the semantic contours laid out by Middleton. 

The papyri were seen, then, to be very much in step with the classical authors and the NT.  Further, when a writer wanted to distinguish individuals—and there were scores of instances in which distinct individuals were in view—he or she invariably used a second article (TSKTS)—except, of course, when a proper name was involved.  In fact, one might be a bit surprised to find in this vulgar Greek even convoluted constructions where the writer still remembered the second article.  For example, in P. Oxy. 494.22-23 we read of “my wife . . . and my son” (ἡ γυνή μου καὶ . . . ὁ υἱός μου), where three words intervene; similarly, P. Giess. 80.3-4: “her papa and . . . the mother” (ὁ πάπας αὐτῆς καὶ . . . ἡ μήτηρ); BGU 1680.4-8 reads “my sister and . . . his wife  . . . and her husband and . . .the son” (τὴν ἀδελφήν μου καὶ . . . τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ . . . καὶ τὸν ἄνδρα αὐτῆς καὶ . . . τὸν υἱόν), all clear references to different people.  P. Columb. Inventory 480.2-3 mentions “the farmer of the tax on slaves and the controller” (ὁ πραγματευόμενος τὴν ὠδὴν ἀνδραπόδων καὶ ὁ ἀντιγραφεύς).120

My antecedent presumption was that there would be several exceptions to Sharp’s rule in these two volumes, since the papyri represent the lowest level of hellenistic Greek.  The fact that they too conformed to Sharp’s canon—at least the small amount of papyri I investigated—perhaps shows how deeply imbedded was this idiom in the koine period.

Exceptions to the Rule Outside the New Testament. Finally, we need to look at the potential exceptions to the rule which have been mentioned  over the years.  As we noted earlier, the latest and most complete list of exceptions was compiled by Calvin Winstanley in 1819!  From other sources, as well as my own independent study, we can enlarge on Winstanley’s list substantially.  However, we can just barely enlarge on the categories of exceptions which Winstanley found.  Winstanley was Sharp’s most formidable adversary and, quite frankly, not all of his objections have been adequately answered even to this day.121  This final portion of the section will be an attempt to interact with Winstanley’s exceptions.

Though he lays out the counter-examples in a seemingly random, rapid-fire order, all of Winstanley’s illustrations can be grouped into one of four classes.  First, he gives a dozen or so examples from Aristotle in which the substantives, though singular, are generic: for example, “the disciplined and undisciplined man” (τὸν σώφρονα καὶ ἀκόλαστον).122  I have found several more examples from Aristotle and other classical authors which also involve generic nouns.123  Winstanley grudgingly concedes, “the nouns, though personal, are used in a general or universal sense.  In this respect, it must be confessed, they differ materially from those of which you [i.e., Sharp] would correct the common version; and so far may be thought inapplicable . . .”124  We might, however, in light of Winstanley’s exceptions, modify Sharp’s rule to say both that nouns which are plural syntactically and those which are plural semantically (i.e., generic nouns)125 are not within the purview of the rule.  Another way to put this is that Sharp’s rule applies only to nouns which have an individual referent, as opposed to a class or group.126  On a deep structure level, then, Sharp’s rule has not been subverted by generic singulars.

Secondly, Winstanley cites one clear exception from the LXX overlooked by Sharp: Prov 24:21 reads “fear God, o son, and the king” (φοβοῦ τὸν θεόν, υἱέ, καὶ βασιλέα).  Kuehne argues that the LXX translator here is merely being slavishly faithful to his underlying Hebrew text.127  This is only partially true.  The Hebrew reads ירא־את־יהוה בני ומלךְיהוה lacks the article as always; it needs no article to be considered definite.  This fact, coupled with the presence of the direct object marker—which is used almost exclusively with definite nouns128—renders the noun as virtually the equivalent of an articular noun.  Thus, if יהוה is to be translated with a word other than κύριος, we might well expect the article to be employed.  Indeed, the LXX of Proverbs occasionally translates יהוה with the articular θεός (cf. 3:7, 19; 5:21; 15:29; 19:3) rather than with κύριος, perhaps due to metric considerations. Thus, although יהוה is not arthrous, ὁ θεός fairly represents its syntactical force.  The LXX is not, then, slavishly literal, but may in fact be closer to a dynamic equivalence.129 If so, why then would βασιλέα be anarthrous?  Why would the translator begin with a syntactically equivalent translation (ὁ θεός) and then in midstream change to a formally equivalent one?  Three possible explanations present themselves.  First, consistency is hardly the hallmark of the LXX translators, especially in the later books.  Juggling two dissimilar languages creates special problems.  Not infrequently, translators vacillate between formal fidelity (which creates abnormal grammar in the receptor language) and dynamic equivalence (which poorly reflects on the structure of the original).  When both principles are at work in a given sentence, the results can be erratic.  In this case, the flow of the sentence is disrupted by the vocative.  Having made the choice to translate יהוה with ὁ θεός, the translator may have been distracted by the the vocative immediately following.  To render מלךְ as τὸν βασιλέα would have been an easy oversight.  Had the translator rendered יהוה as κύριον, there would have been no problem leaving βασιλέα anarthrous.  When coupled with the occasional practice of translating יהוה with ὁ θεός, the result seems to be an unintentional violation of normal Greek grammar. 

A second explanation is that the choice may have been conscious.  Since the vocative υἱέ stands between the two accusative nouns, the translator may have felt that the syntactical infraction was insignificant in comparison with retaining the correspondence with the Hebrew.  What renders this at least plausible is the fact that although the TSKS personal singular construction follows Sharp’s rule even when there is interference from a variety of grammatical forms (such as adjectives or possessive pronouns), almost none of the examples in the NT or papyri have an unconnected substantive interfering with the TSKS.  That is to say, the intervening nominals and adnominals in the TSKS construction are almost always syntactically subordinated to the elements in the construction.130  Thus it is distinctly possible that a vocative in the middle of two accusatives would sufficiently disrupt the semantics.  Certainly a vocative is more disruptive than a possessive pronoun precisely because it is not in any way syntactically linked to the substantives in the construction.  However, since we know of no parallel instances, this suggestion must remain speculative.131 

A third possible explanation is that poetic license may have played a role in the syntactical choices.  The LXX translator of the Proverbs is apparently concerned with Greek meter as well as other poetic features.132  The syntax of poetry is known to deviate from that of prose in many and substantial ways.133  Some of these are inexplicable, but nevertheless observed.  In particular, the article is frequently dispensed with for metrical convenience.134

Regarding these possible explanations, it must be admitted that all are somewhat speculative.  On any reckoning, Prov 24:21 must be considered an anomaly and hardly representative of the idiom of koine Greek.  Nevertheless, it does stand as an exception to Sharp’s rule.  Whatever the exact reason for this solecism, it is almost surely tied to the LXX as translation Greek.  Thus, we might modify Sharp’s rule still further by saying that sometimes (once—so far) translation Greek will violate the rule, if the base language has a contrary construction.135  Whether this will have a bearing on the christologically significant texts will be developed in the following section.

Thirdly, Winstanley cites an exception which Middleton had discovered and had quite a bit of difficulty with.  In Herodotus’ Histories 4.71 we read of “the cup-bearer and cook and groom and servant and messenger” (τὸν οἰνοχόον καὶ μάγειρον καὶ ἱπποκόμον καὶ διήκονον καὶ ἀγγελιηφόρον).  Middleton felt it was impossible that this could refer to one person.  In a sense, he equivocated on the text, for he mentioned that he had not had a chance to look at a good edition of Herodotus to see if such was really the reading.  I have—and it is.136  Further, Middleton argued that this was the only instance he had found anywhere in Greek in which one article preceded several nouns of personal description.137  Clearly, he had a problem with this text.  Yet,  elsewhere in his grammar, Middleton dealt with the phenomenon of “enumeration”—i.e., instances in which three or more nouns are strung together.  And in that section Middleton noted that even the best authors did not follow their normal practice with reference to the article.138  Other grammarians also point out the problem of enumeration, noting, in effect, that in lists of three or more terms, there is a greater tendency to omit the article when it would otherwise be appropriate.139 

A linguistic reason can be given for this phenomenon as well.  When TSKS fits the rule, the second substantive either further identifies or describes or clarifies something about the first.  If so, then typically a third epithet would be superfluous.140  Unless there are special contextual reasons for the third being there—in particular, to stress the multi-functional character of the person in view, we might in fact normally expect enumerations to indicate more than one individual.  Philippians 2:25 affords an excellent illustration of such multi-functional emphasis: ᾿Επαφρόδιτον τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργὸν καὶ συστρατιώτην μου, ὑμῶν δὲ ἀπόστολον καὶ λειτουργὸν τῆς χρείας μου.  The five-fold accolade of Epaphroditus141 by the apostle bears an implicitly apologetic tone.  The church at Philippi had sent Epaphroditus, hoping that Paul would retain him as his assistant and send Timothy back to them (Phil. 2:19-30).  Paul, however, was unwilling to send Timothy until he found out more about his own circumstances.  Instead, he decided to send Epaphroditus back (Phil. 2:25-30).  Inter alia, this epistle is a diplomatic reintroduction of Epaphroditus in light of the Philippians’ hope that Timothy would be sent.142   In light of this, one can readily see why the apostle would speak so highly of Epaphroditus—and further, why he would build up Epaphroditus before the Philippians as a genuine co-worker (“My brother and fellow-worker and fellow-soldier”) as well as a truly unselfish emissary (“but your apostle and minister to my need”).  Epaphroditus embodies the very attitude Paul desires of the Philippians.  In taking him back, they would become like him.  That the multiple TSKS construction has a singular referent, in this instance, is not superfluous, but necessary.143

We might therefore, in refining Sharp’s rule still further, add that where several nouns are involved in the construction it may or may not follow the rule.144  Contextual considerations in which reasons for a trebled or quadrupled identification can be detected (such as in Phil 2:25) are normally required if an identical referent is to be inferred.

Finally, Winstanley put forth as his trump card a few examples from patristic literature in which, if Sharp’s rule applied, the personal distinctions within the Trinity would seem to be blurred.  But as these illustrations all come from patristic literature and have a specific content, viz. references to the Trinity, we will subsume our discussion of them under the christological cruces in the next section. 

One other apparent category of exceptions—and the only one to escape the careful eye of Winstanley—comes from Strabo.145  In his Geography 17.1.11, Strabo writes as follows:146

For Ptolemy, the son of Lagus, succeeded Alexander, and Philadelphus succeeded him, and Euergetes succeeded him, then came Philopater, the son of Agathocleia, then Epiphanes, then Philomater, the son perpetually succeeding the father.  But a brother succeeded [Philometer], the second Euergetes, whom people called “Pot-Belly”; Ptolemy who succeeded him, was nick-named Lathouros, and Auletes, who lived in our day, succeeded him and was the father of Cleopatra.  Therefore, all [the kings] after the third Ptolemy, since they had been corrupted by wantonness, governed badly, but the fourth and seventh were the worst, along with the last one, Auletes.

In his description of Epiphanes and Ptolemy as “the fourth and seventh,” Strabo uses the TSKS construction: ὁ τέταρτος καὶ ἕβδομος.  This is a clear violation of Sharp’s canon—and one which does not fit the other categories of exceptions which we have discovered thus far. For this reason it is a rather noteworthy text.  It is interesting that Strabo adds “and the last” (καὶ ὁ ὕστατος) with the article.  One might conjecture that in a list of this sort, where “the fourth” cannot possibly refer to the same person as “the seventh,” the article could easily be omitted, while since “the seventh” and “the last” could, in a given context, refer to the same person, the article is necessarily reinserted.  (It could even happen in this context from a reader’s perspective, for unless one is consciously counting the rulers, some confusion is most likely.)  Hence, Strabo offers an example of a fifth category of exceptions to Sharp’s rule: ordinal numerals, when having a personal referent, do not necessarily fit the rule.  Although it could be argued that the discrete referents can easily be fleshed out, such an argument would be perilously close to the weak-wristed approach of Middleton147 regarding patristic Greek to the effect that “we all know that the Father is not the Son; hence there could be no confusion.”

From both the linguistic side and the phenomenological side, however, ordinal numerals do seem to constitute a special class.  First, linguistically, even Middleton recognized “their natural definiteness.”148  Except in situations such as anaphora, they rarely require the article.  Hence, they do not function like the usual common epithet.  Indeed, ordinal numerals typically have “denotation but no connotation, reference but no sense.”149  In this respect they function very much like proper names and therefore tend to move in semantic circles outside the ambit of Sharp’s requirements.  Second, phenomenologically, this example is paralleled in another writer, the tragedian Sophocles.  Moorhouse has noted that the article is used in Sophocles “With ordinal numerals in a series     . . . but [is] omitted with ἕκτος, ἕβδομος, ἕνατος.”150  Whether the syntax of Sophocles is idiolectic and shut up to this particular playwright (or even to poetry more generally) or is a more widely diffused idiom native to Greek literature, even diachronically defined, is difficult to assess without a larger data base.  But in the least we can say that, linguistically, ordinals behave more like proper names than common nouns (for as quantifiers they are used to identify, not describe) and, phenomenologically, there may be an idiomatic usage of the article in more than one author. 

C. Summary

We have seen that Sharp’s rule, when properly understood, is not only supported by decent linguistic rationale, but has overwhelming validity in ancient Greek literature.  Further, the few classes of exceptions all seem to be capable of linguistic explanation.  Nevertheless, as this is a paper primarily related to the NT, with other Greek literature serving in a supportive role, the overarching issue is not about the inviolability of Sharp’s rule in secular Greek.  What is of utmost concern is whether it can be legitimately applied to the christologically pregnant texts.  What will need to be addressed in the next section, inter alia, is whether the classes of exceptions in any way impinge on the validity of the rule when potential affirmations of the deity of Christ are in view.

III. The Christologically Significant Texts

If the christologically significant texts fit the requirements for Sharp’s rule, then the case would seem to be settled.  Perhaps this is why a perennial argument against affirmations of Christ’s deity in these texts is that the nouns in question do not quite fit the contours of Sharp’s canon. 

A. Sharp’s Application To Christologically Significant Texts

Based on what he correctly perceived to be an otherwise absolute principle of NT grammar, Sharp argued that there are eight passages in which his rule explicitly affirmed the deity of Christ.  Unfortunately, his case was weakened in some of these instances either because of textual problems or because one of the nouns involved was more than likely a proper name.  The eight passages are as follows:

Acts 20:28

τὴν ἐκκλησίαν τοῦ κυρίου καὶ θεοῦ, ἣν περιεποιήσατο διὰ τοῦ αἵματος τοῦ ἰδίου

“the church of the Lord and God, which he purchased with his own blood”

Eph 5:5

ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ

“in the kingdom of Christ and God”

2 Thess 1:12

τὴν χάριν τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ κυρίου  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

“the grace of our God and Lord Jesus Christ”

1 Tim 5:21

διαμαρτύρομαι ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ κυρίου Χριστοῦ  ᾿Ιησοῦ

“I charge you before the God and Lord Jesus Christ”

2 Tim 4:1

διαμαρτύρομαι ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ κυρίου Χριστοῦ  ᾿Ιησοῦ

“I charge you before the God and Lord Jesus Christ”

Titus 2:13

τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

“the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ”

2 Pet 1:1

ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ

“in the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ”

Jude 4

τὸν μόνον δεσπότην θεὸν καὶ κύριον ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦν Χριστόν

“our only Lord God and Master, Jesus Christ”

Sharp invoked dubious textual variants in four of the eight texts to support his rule (Acts 20:28; 1 Tim 5:21; 2 Tim 4:1; Jude 4).151  As well, in 1 Tim 5:21 and 2 Tim 4:1, if the almost certainly authentic reading of τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ  ᾿Ιησοῦ (for τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ κυρίου Χριστοῦ  ᾿Ιησοῦ) is accepted, then the text can also be dispensed with, for “Christ Jesus” is surely a proper name, and thus does not fall within the limitations of Sharp’s rule.  Further, two other passages seem to involve proper names.  Second Thessalonians 1:12 does not have merely “Lord” in the equation, but “Lord Jesus Christ.” Only by detaching κυρίου from   ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ152 could one apply Sharp’s rule to this construction.153  Ephesians 5:5 has the name “Christ” in the equation, though one would be hard-pressed to view this as less than a proper name in the epistles.154

This leaves two passages, Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1, which have escaped the difficulties of textual uncertainty155 and the charge of disqualification via proper names.156  If indeed these texts contain explicit statements of Christ’s deity, it is not without significance that they occur in epistles which are among the later books of the NT.  Before we can explore more fully these texts, it is necessary to expand our horizons on the legitimacy of Sharp’s principle.  That is to say, two other factors directly related to these passages should be addressed.157

In the preceding section we established that the natural force of the personal, singular, non-proper substantives in Sharp’s construction was to have an identical referent.  This was determined through linguistic channels, both negatively (an assessment of the TSKS construction when it deflected from Sharp’s requirements) and positively.  It was also determined to be at least a generally valid principle on the basis of evidence, both in the NT and in extra-NT literature.

In addition, there are two other strands of evidence which strongly suggest the validity of Sharp’s canon in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1.  First is the patristic confirmation of the rule.  Second is the usage of θεὸς σωτήρ in the koine period.

B. Extra-Syntactical Confirmation

1. Patristic Usage of Christological Texts

This strand of evidence does not deal with the article-noun-καί-noun construction in general, but only with the christologically significant texts.  In 1802 a fellow (and later, master) of Trinity College in Cambridge, Christopher Wordsworth, published his Six Letters to Granville Sharp, Esq. Respecting his Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, in the Greek Text of the New Testament.158  Wordsworth tested Sharp’s principle in the patristic literature.  He felt that if the principle was valid, then the Greek fathers would certainly have understood the christologically significant texts in the same way that Sharp had.  Further, he believed that the Latin fathers, on the assumption of the rule’s validity,  would not have uniformly understood the same texts as referring to one person since there is no article in Latin, rendering their translations more obscure.  On the other hand, if Sharp’s rule was a figment of his own imagination, then the Greek fathers, as well as Latin, would not be uniform in their understanding.159

Wordsworth found plenty of patristic evidence.  Interestingly, since Acts 20:28; 2 Tim 4:1; and Jude 4 were textually suspect, he found very little evidence in the fathers with the reading preferred by Sharp.160  Further, he found no fathers to confirm Sharp’s interpretation of 1 Tim 5:21 and urged Sharp to abandon his view of this text, arguing that “Christ Jesus” is a proper name.161  Concerning         2 Thess 1:12 he states that “my references are few; so few, that at the most, I have not more than one quotation, exclusive of those which are derived from the regular commentators: and so indeterminate, that in all which I can produce, there is not one of the passages which is decisive, either way, with respect to the required interpretation.”162 

Nevertheless, Wordsworth felt that these passages did not impinge on the rule, for Sharp had either appealed to textual variants in some of these passages (which variants the fathers did not embrace), or else invoked passages which involved proper names.  In other words, the Greek patristic writers not only implicitly knew of the requirements of Sharp’s canon, but understood them better than Sharp did himself!

Concerning the remaining three passages (Eph 5:5; Titus 2:13; and 2 Pet 1:1), he noted that they were all used frequently, from the second century on.  Indeed, he became quite convinced that Sharp had articulated such a sound principle that at one point he declared,

. . . I fully believe, that there is no one exception to your first rule in the whole New Testament: and the assertion might be extended infinitely further.  But, in all other places, (whatever it may be in those concerning which we are particularly interested) having, under your guidance, examined them, I am persuaded that the idiom is not “anceps,” not “ambiguum.”  Nay, may I not venture to add, that the Greek must be a strange language, if such a thing were possible?163

After an exhaustive investigation, from Greek Christian literature covering a span of over 1000 years, Wordsworth was able to make the astounding comment,

. . . I have observed more (I am persuaded) than a thousand instances of the form ὁ Χριστος και Θεος (Ephes. v. 5)[,] some hundreds of instances of the ὁ μεγας θεος και σωτηρ (Tit. ii. 13); and not fewer than several thousands of the form ὁ θεος και σωτηρ(2 Pet. i. 1.)[,] while in no single case, have I seen (where the sense could be determined) any of them used, but only of one person.164

On the surface, the massive research of Christopher Wordsworth looks rather impressive.  However, we need to inquire further: (1) Did some of the orthodox fathers use these passages as proof texts in their debates with Arians?  If so, this might imply that such texts had an obvious force to natives of the Greek tongue—one which both friend and foe could perceive.  If not, it may well be that the fathers found ready at hand an expression in certain passages which they could use to speak of Christ’s deity, but which nevertheless did not necessarily convey that meaning originally.165  (2) Did the orthodox Latin fathers use the same verses in a less-than-uniform manner?  If not, our suspicion that the phrase itself, rather than the meaning of the biblical text, was what prompted the unequivocal usage.  (3) Did any second or third century fathers use these same texts in defense of Christ’s deity?  If not, again we may perhaps discount the patristic usage as informed by set idiom and creedal formulation.

Without belaboring the issue, we can answer in the affirmative on all three counts.  Wordsworth quotes a number of fathers who used these passages as proofs against Arianism—in fact, he even finds a few Arians who conceded the syntax of the construction to their opponents.  For example, regarding Titus 2:13 he argues that

The interpretation of our version [KJV] was never once thought of in any part of the Christian world, even when Arianism was triumphant over the Catholic faith.  Surely, this fact, [sic] might of itself suffice to overturn every notion of an ambiguity in the form of expression.166

The Latin fathers (even those whose orthodoxy was unquestioned) were inconsistent in the use of these texts, betraying that the uniformity in the Greek fathers was probably due to Greek syntax, not to nascent creedalism.167  And some second/third century fathers did, indeed, use these texts as proofs of the deity of Christ.168  For whatever the Greek patristic testimony is worth,169 at least we can say that it points only in one direction.170

2. Θεὸς Σωτήρ in the Milieu of the First Century

A second confirmation (related to Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1) can be found in the juxtaposition of θεός and σωτήρ in the milieu of the first Christian century.  Several scholars have pointed out the fact that θεός and σωτήρ were often predicated of one person in the ancient world.  Some, in fact, have assumed that θεὸς σωτήρ was predicated of Jesus only after 70 CE and in direct opposition to the imperial cult.171  Although it is probable that hellenistic religious usage helped the church in how it expressed its Christology, the primary impetus for the content of that Christology more than likely came from a different source.  Moehlmann, in his dissertation on this topic,172 after canvassing the use of the two terms in Greco-Roman civilization, argues that in Jewish literature (including the OT) σωτήρ was “usually associated with and generally restricted to God.”173  He then argues, convincingly I think, that the use of this double epithet for Jesus was due to the growing conviction of the primitive church that Christ was in fact divine. 

To put it tersely, to say soter was to say theos.  When the author of the epistle to Titus says, “looking for the blessed hope and epiphany of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,” he summarizes the ordinary content of the soter-idea in the culture of his day.  Theos soter is a rather fixed, inseparable combination in the civilization of the Roman empire.  “No one could be a god any longer unless he was also a savior” had its complement in no one could be a savior without being a god.174

But what about the precise expression θεὸς σωτήρ?  Whence did it come—and was it ever used of more than one person?  Within the pages of the LXX, one finds this exact construction on only one or two occasions.175  It is consequently quite doubtful that the OT, or more generally, Judaism, was the primary source for such a phrase.  Further confirmation of this is found in the syntax of the construction.  The Hebrew OT only rarely has the personal, singular article-noun-waw-noun construction.  That is to say, only rarely is this construction found in which the waw connects the two substantives.176  And when it does so, the semantics are mixed.  The LXX almost uniformly renders such a construction as other than a TSKS construction.177  Thus, neither the general syntactic structure of TSKS nor the specific lexemes of θεός and σωτήρ in such a construction can be attributable to OT influence.

Moulton lists several instances of this expression as referring to Roman emperors, though all but one of them dates from the seventh century CE.178 But there are earlier uses of the phrase circulating in hellenistic circles—and not a few which antedate the NT.179   Harris, in fact, argues that “the expression ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ was a stereotyped formula common in first-century religious terminology . . . and invariably denoted one deity, not two.”180  More than likely, then, the expression should be traced to non-Jewish sources, especially those relating to emperor-worship.  At the same time, “the early Christian texts which call Jesus ‘Saviour’ nowhere exhibit a view of the Soter related to the Hellenistic concept.”181  Cullmann is surely right that Hellenism accounts for the form, Judaism for the content of the expression,182 for the juxtaposition of θεός and σωτήρ (though almost always without a connective καί) was a well-established idiom for the early Christians already resident within the pages of their Bible.183  Nevertheless, regardless of the source of the expression, the use in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 of this idiom is almost certainly a reference to one person, confirming once again Sharp’s assessment of the phrase.184

In sum, Sharp’s rule outside of the NT has been very strongly confirmed both in the classical authors and in the koine.  And although a few possible exceptions to his rule were found in the literature, the phrase ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ (Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1) admitted of no exceptions—either in Christian or secular writings.  Ironically, then, the very passages in which Sharp sought to prove his rule have become among the least contestable in their singular referentiality.  Indeed, the researches of Wendland, Moulton, Moehlmann, Cullmann, et al., are so compelling that exegetes nowadays are more apt to deny Paul and Peter than they are Christ185—that is to say, precisely because of the high Christology of Titus and 2 Peter the authenticity of these letters is usually denied.186  In this connection, it is noteworthy that Winer, whose theological argument against Sharp’s canon in Titus 2:13 influenced so many, held to Pauline authorship of the Pastorals.  Indeed, it was “considerations from Paul’s system of doctrine” which forced him to deny the validity of the rule.187  These two issues—apostolic authorship and Christology—are consequently pitted against each other in these texts, and the opinions of a scholar in one area too often cloud his judgment in the other.188  Entirely apart from questions of authorship, however, we believe that the evidence adduced thus far firmly supports Sharp’s canon as it applies to Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1.  What remains to be done is an examination of the substantive arguments against, and especially the alleged exceptions to, Sharp’s principle.

C. Arguments against the Application of the Rule to the Christologically Significant Texts

Arguments against Sharp’s canon take two forms: first, arguments against its application to the christologically significant texts; and second, exceptions to the rule in general.  As we have dealt extensively with the second issue, this section (with which we begin) will merely summarize our findings.

1. General Syntactical Considerations

As we saw earlier, four classes of exceptions to Sharp’s canon have been detected in Greek literature (though none in the NT).  We raised serious linguistic arguments against them being genuine exceptions, noting however the possibility of blunting Occam’s razor with the resultant complexities that our explanation may have suggested.  In this section we wish to make a simple observation: even if every one of our linguistic explanations proved invalid, none of the exceptions impacts the christologically significant texts. 

First of all, generic singulars were seen to be outside the scope of Sharp’s canon on a rare occasion.  (We suggested that although such substantives were singular in form they were plural in semantic force.)  Such nominals of course would make no impact on the theological cruces, because neither θεός nor σωτήρ are functioning as generics in Titus 2:13 or 2 Pet 1:1.

Second, one example of translation Greek (Prov 24:21) proved to be a violation of Sharp’s principle.  This again does not impact the christologically pregnant texts, for two reasons.  (1) The personal singular article-substantive-καί-substantive construction is almost never found in either the Hebrew OT or the LXX.  Thus, syntactically, we could not argue that such a construction typically represented translation Greek.  (Again, only one instance was uncovered in the LXX.)  (2) More importantly, the expression ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ was found to be a Jewish concept but a Greek form.  Thus, this precise phrase cannot be considered translation Greek.

Third, instances involving three or more nominals, known as enumeration, were found to violate the rule.  One example from Attic Greek and one from koine were produced.  Again, although a linguistic explanation was offered for this phenomenon, it is obviously irrelevant to Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1, for only two substantives are used in the constructions in these texts.

Finally, one instance involving ordinal numerals was discovered to violate Sharp’s rule.  We suggested that ordinal numerals behave very much like proper names.  Further, some evidence was located which may imply a broadly based idiom for the dropping of the article with ordinals in lists (particularly ἕβδομος, as in our one text from Strabo).  Nevertheless, whether due to idiom or analogy to proper names, this category bears no force on the debatable NT texts.

In conclusion, we must stress the methodological imperative for making a close examination of a given structure’s semantic situation.  Too many faulty syntactical deductions are made because the attendant lexical and morphological features are not observed.  Hence, though there are five classes of exceptions to Sharp’s canon, to appeal to such exceptions vis-à-vis the christologically pregnant texts is both linguistically imprecise and exegetically irresponsible.

2. Text-Specific and Theological Considerations

A second kind of argument dealt specifically with the theological cruces.  In many respects the velocity of the diatribe here may suggest a tacit concession of the validity of Sharp’s rule in general.  That is to say, the main thrust of the theological arguments was still rooted in syntax: adversaries of the “Christ as God” language attempted to give reasons why such texts did not meet Sharp’s requirements. 

We are limiting our discussion to two passages, Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1, for it is in these passages that the best case can be made.189  These texts are quite similar, yet each has its own set of complications.  We will deal with the one lexical problem mutually shared by them, then take a brief look at the peculiar difficulties each verse involves.  Finally, we will address the one syntactical problem that Winstanley raised as that which he perceived to be his coup de grâce.   

α. Θεός as a Proper Name

C. J. Ellicott, in his essay, “Scripture, and its Interpretation,” argues that “Granville Sharp’s rule . . . is sound in principle, but, in the case of proper names or quasi-proper names, cannot safely be pressed.”190  As we have already noted, it can never be pressed in the case of proper names, just as Sharp himself pointed out.  But what about quasi-proper names?  Several scholars take θεός to be just that—in fact, it is often considered to be unequivocally a proper name.  If indeed it is, then Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 do not identify Christ as God. 

There are several considerations against this supposition, however.  First of all, we see that θεός is used in the TSKS construction well over a dozen times in the NT,191 and always (if we exclude the christologically significant texts) in reference to one person.  This phenomenon is not true of any other proper name in said construction.  Indeed, it is the most common noun used in constructions involving Sharp’s rule.  Without it, our database would be significantly depleted.  Second, θεός occurs in the plural frequently in the NT, while no other personal proper name does.192  Third, proper names are usually anarthrous (since they need no article to be definite), except in cases of anaphora, contrast, or other similar reasons;193 but “in the nomin. θεός is used almost always with the art.”194  And in the oblique cases other syntactical factors contribute to its definiteness.195  Hence, even in this respect, it is not wholly analogous to proper names.  Fourth, even if θεός were to be considered a proper name in certain NT books, the texts in question are in epistles—and, hence, are ostensibly more concerned with the Gentile mission than perhaps, say, the synoptic Gospels might be.  In contact with the polytheistic Greco-Roman world, the apostolic writers could hardly use θεός as a proper name.  Indeed, Weiss goes so far as to say “denn Paulus sagt 1 Kor. 8, 5, dass tatsächlich θεοὶ πολλοί existieren.”196  Citing such texts as Acts 19:26; 28:6; John 10:34-35; and 2 Thess 2:4, he argues that Paul (as well as other NT writers)

will ausdrücklich betonen, dass die Wesen, welche die Heiden anbeten, nicht etwa wesenlose Geschöpfe ihrer Phantasie sind, sondern wirklich existieren.  Er behauptet nur, dass sie von seinem Standpunkt aus nicht Götter in vollem Sinne seien . . . , sondern nur in weiteren Sinne (als übermenschliche Wesen) so gennant werden.197

In light of arguments such as these, it is no wonder that in Weiss’ careful and comprehensive study of the article with θεός, he concludes that although “die neutestamentlichen Grammatiker rechnen θεός zu den Appellativis, die sich den Eigennamen nähern . . . für θεός trifft das nun keinesfalls zu . . .”198  Fifth, there is confirmatory evidence in the hellenistic papyri examined for this paper.  Three of the four plural personal noun constructions in which an identical referent was seen had θεός for one of the nouns; e.g., “you . . . the great gods and protectors” (ὑμᾶς . . . τοὺς θεοὺς μεγίστους καὶ ἀντιλήμπτορας) in P. Lond. 23 (=UPZ 14).17-18.  In the hellenistic papyri, θεός was always one of the nouns, perhaps suggesting something of an idiomatic expression.  Very much against Ellicott’s view, this at least demonstrates that θεός was hardly considered a quasi-proper name in the koine period.

b. Titus 2:13

This verse has one difficulty peculiar to itself.  As Berge points out, “the exegetical problem posed by the entire phrase, τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ, has three possibilities: (1) Jesus Christ is the great God and Savior; (2) the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ are to be distinguished; (3) Jesus Christ stands in apposition to δόξα, and τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν refers solely to God.”199  This third possibility, even if valid, would not break Sharp’s principle here—it would only deny that in this text Christ is called God.  Few commentators actually hold to this view,200 for it seems to do such violence to taking ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ as in apposition to what immediately precedes.  Nevertheless, though somewhat ancillary to our overriding concern (viz. the validity of Sharp’s rule), since this view would effectively remove Titus 2:13 from the list of passages which affirm the deity of Christ, it should be addressed briefly.201 

The basic argument for this view is threefold.  First, like the first view mentioned above, this approach sees the TSKS construction as referring to one person.  Thus, whatever evidence can be mustered for the validity of Sharp’s rule in Titus 2:13 can be said to help this approach.  Second, σωτήρ is often linked to θεός (ἡμῶν) in the pastorals with reference to the Father.202   It would thus seem natural to apply it to the Father in this text as well.  Third, the NT uses other similar titles for Christ (e.g., ἀλήθεια, ζωή, φῶς).  To see an abstract term used of Christ here would not be out of step with other early Christologies.

There are difficulties with this view, however.  First, as we noted above, this reading is unnatural and overly subtle: one would expect   ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ to be in apposition with what immediately precedes (viz. σωτῆρος ἡμῶν).203  Second, σωτήρ (ἡμῶν) is used both of Christ and the Father in the pastorals—on one occasion, the referent changes from one verse to the next.204  If the author can shift from Father to Son in Titus 1:3 and 1:4, there can be no objection to his doing so in Titus 2:10 and 2:13.  Third, the evidence for δόξα θεοῦ as a primitive christological title is, at best, inconclusive.  Although it is possible in several texts (such as Jas 2:1; Eph 1:17; Heb 1:3), it is unlikely in all of them.  In other words, we have no clear instances of δόξα used as a christological title in the NT.  Without better evidence forthcoming, this view must be regarded with suspicion.  It is an intriguing speculation, but little more.  Titus 2:13 appears to be secure as a reference to Christ as θεός.

c. Second Peter 1:1

This passage also has its own peculiar problem: a possessive pronoun is attached to the first noun.  The possessive pronoun seems almost to “bracket” the noun, effectively isolating the trailing noun so that it does not partake of the article.  At least, this is the intuitive sense that some exegetes get from the passage.  Winer, for example, used this argument, for which Robertson took him to task.  More recently, Stauffer argues that in 2 Thess 1:12 “the first attribute (θεός) is separated from the second by ἡμῶν, and therefore it is not to be related to Christ . . .” and, on the following page, “. . . in 2 Pt. 1:1, as in 2 Th. 1:12, the ἡμῶν separates the attributes.”205  Is this phenomenon really sufficient to break the force of Sharp’s rule?  In response, Robertson has pointed out that

There is no pronoun with σωτῆρος in 2 Peter i. 11, precisely the same idiom, where no one doubts the identity of “Lord and Saviour.”  Why refuse to apply the same rule to 2 Peter i. 1, that all admit, Winer included, to be true of 2 Peter i. 11?206

This is an excellent point, but the case could be made even stronger.  First, this particular phrase is used not only in 2 Pet 1:1 and 1:11, but also in 2:20 and 3:18—again, as in 1:11, in obvious reference to Christ.  Indeed, as the author uses only one other article-noun-καί-noun construction in his epistle, this is his normal pattern.  Second, there are a few other personal, singular TSKS constructions in the NT which have a genitive attached to the first noun,207 yet Sharp’s rule is not hampered by the presence of the genitive.  To be sure, not all of these involve a possessive pronoun (though most do); nor do all of them have a genitive affixed only to the first noun.  But this, in principle, would not seem to make much difference, for the genitive would appear to interrupt the article’s “getting to” the second noun, regardless of whether it was a pronoun, or whether another genitive was attached to the second noun.  For example, in 1 Thess 3:2 ἡμῶν is attached to the first noun (Τιμόθεον, τὸν ἀδελφὸν ἡμῶν καὶ συνεργὸν τοῦ θεοῦ), though the second noun does pick up a genitive noun.  Revelation 1:9 affords an even closer parallel, fitting exactly the structure of 2 Pet 1:1 (ὁ ἀδελφὸς ὑμῶν καὶ συγκοινωνός).  Third, I have found the same phenomenon in the papyri and, once again, the genitive attached to the first noun never broke the force of Sharp’s principle.  For example, P. Lond. 417.1 reads “to my master and beloved brother” (τῷ δεσπότῃ μου καὶ ἀγαπητῷ ἀδελφῷ); Sitzungsber. Preuss. Ak. (1911, p. 796) mentions “Baebius, my friend and secretary” (Βαιβίου τοῦ ἐμοῦ φίλου καὶ γραμματέως); P. Oxy. 2106. 24-25 addresses “my lord and brother” (τῷ κυρίῳ μου καὶ ἀδελφῷ); in BGU 1035.1 we see “our lord and master” (τῷ κυρίῳ ἡμῶν καὶ δεσπότῃ), an expression repeated nineteen lines later.  In all such instances the possessive pronoun had no effect on breaking the construction.  The fact, then, that a possessive pronoun attached only to the first substantive never nullifies Sharp’s principle—either in 2 Peter or in the NT or in the papyri that I have examined—is strong confirmation of the validity of the rule in 2 Pet 1:1.  In this case, as always, presumption must give way to evidence.

3. Patristic Exceptions

Calvin Winstanley illustrated from patristic literature instances in which, if Sharp’s rule applied, the personal distinctions within the Trinity would seem to be blurred.  For example, Polycarp speaks of “glory to the God and Father and Holy Spirit” (τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ καὶ ἁγίῳ πνεύματι);208 Clement of Alexandria gives praise “to the only Father and Son” (τῷ μόνῳ πατρὶ καὶ υἱῷ).209  To this kind of exception Middleton can only reply that no ambiguity could result, for the distinctions in the members of the Trinity were obvious to all.210  I find this kind of response to be the weakest link in the vindication of Sharp’s rule, for two reasons: (1) for the other three kinds of exceptions, a syntactical reason naturally presented itself as the cause of the apparent exception, while here Sharp’s advocates appeal to common sense; (2) consequently, this kind of reasoning is a case of petitio principii with reference to the christologically significant texts in the NT.  One could just as easily argue—and several have—that since Paul nowhere else explicitly identifies Christ as God, there is no ambiguity in his meaning in Titus 2:13 (that is to say, two persons are obviously meant).  Indeed, as we have noted, it is ironic that many scholars who affirm the deity of Christ in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 do so precisely because they deny apostolic authorship and many who affirm apostolic authorship deny that deity is explicitly taught.

There may be a different way to deal with Winstanley’s coup de grâce.  As a preliminary comment to our suggestion, it should be pointed out that (1) all of the texts which belong in this fourth category are found in patristic literature;211 (2) all of the texts that Winstanley produced are, in fact, found in second or early third century patristic literature; (3) all of the texts involve only members of the Trinity; and (4) all of the texts involve at least two terms to describe the first person of the Trinity—e.g., “the only Father,” or “the God and Father,” etc.

It would seem that we are assuming too much about their own christological articulation when we read early church fathers.  There are glimpses, here and there, that in their zeal to defend the deity of Christ they proved too much.  Ignatius, for example, speaks of “the blood of God” (Eph. 1:1).  The appellation “Lord and God” was often used of Christ, as well as “Savior and God,” though hardly ever was the reverse order observed in these early writers.  Ignatius drops the conjunction altogether in most of his affirmations.  Such language, of course, does seem to be appropriate and in keeping with the spirit of the apostolic age, but at the same time it renders the statements about the deity of Christ, if not more direct, certainly more blunt.  Others seemed at times to blur the distinctions between members of the Trinity.212  This is not to say that they were unaware of the distinctions necessarily, but simply that their articulation was not what it would be in 325 or 451.  At the same time, in their zeal to defend the faith—and to practice the faith—these fathers did occasionally overstate their case.  Bousset argues that

This sort of hymnological community theology, the distinctive mark of which is a reveling in contradiction, finally had to lead to a complete deification, i.e., to the supplanting of God the Father or the denial of any difference between Father and Son.  What is stirring here is naïve Modalism which the Logos theologians later met as their most suspicious and intolerant opponent.213

Bousset goes on to give illustrations from the second century writers who claimed that Christ “alone is the God of truth, indeed he himself [is] the Father of truth, Father of the heights, true and only God . . . “; he is even called “Lord merciful Father, redeemer Christ.”214  It is no wonder that Bousset quips, “Naïve Modalism cannot be more strongly expressed, and here it is expressed in the unreflective language of prayer.”215

It would seem, then, that in the debates between Winstanley and Middleton, both sides made some rather hasty assumptions about early patristic Christology.  They interpreted the earliest fathers in light of Chalcedon.  Yet, when it is almost exclusively the second and early third century fathers who seem to violate Sharp’s rule; when their alleged abuses are all in references to the members of the Trinity; and when there is demonstrable “naïve modalism” in this early period, what are we to conclude?  Surely it would be too hasty on our part to assume that here and only here is Sharp’s rule violated.216  The very subtle distinction between “person” and “being” could hardly be expected of these writers.  Hence, to identify the Son with the Father was, in one sense, perfectly orthodox.  More than likely these final proof texts on which Winstanley rested his case only prove that the early fathers were in the midst of hammering out a Christology which had to await another century or two before it took final form.  Indeed, rather than refute Sharp’s rule, these proof texts seem to confirm it.

IV. Conclusion

Although Granville Sharp lacked the erudition of a lettered savant, he had an authentically visceral sense about the structure of language.  This intuition, fueled by an unquenchable piety, enabled him to be the first to articulate a genuine feature of the language which spans the constellation graecae from the sublime elegance of the Attic philosophers to the mundane and hasty scribblings of nameless masses in the vulgar papyri.

Calvin Winstanley’s counter-examples, borne no doubt of great industry, served their purpose well.  Thomas Fanshaw Middleton might never have devoted so much space to Sharp’s canon had Winstanley’s illustrations not been so challenging.217  And to Middleton we owe a debt of gratitude for raising the stakes, for giving a measure of linguistic sophistication to the articulation of Sharp’s principle.  These three—Sharp, Winstanley, Middleton—more than the whole company of combatants that would follow have put real meat on the table, for they all produced examples.  While others contented themselves with linguistic sophistry or theological prejudice (as in the case of Winer on one side and a legion of well-meaning scholars on the other), this trio of Englishmen virtually alone anchored the discussion to the actual data. 

In particular, Winstanley produced four classes of exceptions to Sharp’s rule: generic singulars, translation Greek (one illustration), several substantives in the construction (one illustration), and patristic usage.  Our research has turned up more examples for the first and third categories, as well an instance of a fifth (ordinal numerals).  Yet even Winstanley admitted the general validity of Sharp’s rule in the language.  The emerging conviction of this paper—albeit based on partial data—is that the five classes of “exceptions” can be readily explained on sound linguistic principles.  These exceptions in fact help to reveal the semantic depth of Sharp’s rule, even to the extent that it is much more than a general principle. 

Three final comments will conclude this essay.  First, although the restatement of Sharp’s rule addresses all the exceptions, the sampling of Greek writing examined for this paper was but a small drop in the bucket.  Rough estimates suggest that less than four percent of the more than 57 million words of extant Greek writings218 were investigated.  Only extreme naïveté or bald arrogance would permit us to shut our eyes to the possibility of other counter-examples in the remaining ninety-six percent.  At the same time, it must be admitted that numerous examples have been produced which tell the same monotonous story: Sharp’s rule is valid. 

Second, the other side of the coin is that the more classes of exceptions there are, the less Occam’s razor can be invoked.  The rule, even as Sharp stated it, was complex enough to be ignored or forgotten very quickly by opponents and proponents alike.  If our restatement of the rule is a compounding of that complexity, rather than a clarification of the need for it, one has to wonder how a non-native Greek speaker could have perceived such subtle nuances.  At the same time, the fact that all of the exceptions fit into a small number of carefully defined categories seems to be eloquent testimony that Occam’s razor retains its cutting edge.  There is indeed a tension between linguistic formulation and empirical evidence, between science and history.  With historico-literary documents, absolute proof is an ignis fatuus.  But the burden of proof is a different matter; demonstrating this is quite achievable.  This brings us to our third point. 

In part, this paper was an attempt to investigate Winstanley’s evidence (as well as other, more synchronic evidence) and deal with it on a more sure-footed, linguistic basis.  Our restatement of Sharp’s rule is believed to be true to the nature of the language, and able to address all classes of exceptions that Winstanley raised.  The “Sharper” rule is as follows:

In native Greek constructions (i.e., not translation Greek), when a single article modifies two substantives connected by καί (thus, article-substantive-καί-substantive), when both substantives are (1) singular (both grammatically and semantically), (2) personal, (3) and common nouns (not proper names or ordinals), they have the same referent. 

This rule, as stated, covers all the so-called exceptions.  Further, even the exceptions do not impact the christologically significant passages in the NT, for the semantic situation of Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 is outside the scope of Winstanley’s counter-illustrations. 

History is filled with biting ironies.  The debate over Sharp’s rule over the past two centuries has revealed one of them.  As industrious as the efforts of the Englishman Winstanley were to dislodge Sharp’s rule, his volume—which was filled with counter-examples—had little impact.  It took one cavalier footnote, whose substance was only theological innuendo, from a continental man to dislodge Sharp’s rule.  Georg Benedict Winer, the great NT grammarian of the nineteenth century, in this instance spoke outside of his realm, for he gave an unsubstantiated opinion based on a theological preunderstanding.  Yet this single footnote largely brought about the eclipse of understanding of Sharp’s rule.  Friend and foe alike have unwittingly abused the canon, with the result that scores of NT passages have been misunderstood. 

Winer’s opinion notwithstanding, solid linguistic reasons and plenty of phenomenological data were found to support the requirements that Sharp laid down.  When substantives meet the requirements of Sharp’s canon, apposition is the result, and inviolably so in the NT.  The canon even works outside the twenty-seven books and, hence, ought to be resurrected as a sound principle which has overwhelming validity in all of Greek literature.  Consequently, in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 we are compelled to recognize that, on a grammatical level, a heavy burden of proof rests with the one who wishes to deny that “God and Savior” refers to one person, Jesus Christ.


1This paper is, for the most part, excerpted from D. B. Wallace, “The Article with Multiple Substantives Connected by Καί in the New Testament: Semantics and Significance” (Ph.D. dissertation, Dallas Theological Seminary, 1995).  It should be noted that due to time and space limitations, several pertinent sections are deleted from the present essay.

2R. Bultmann, Theology of the New Testament (New York: Scribner’s, 1951) 1.129.

3Identifications of Christ as “Son of God,” “Savior,” and especially “Lord,” are of great importance for understanding NT Christology, but some do not regard them as explicit affirmations of the deity of Christ.  The following lists, from selected authors, therefore, are restricted to passages in which θεός seems to be predicated of Christ.  Bultmann argues that besides John 1:1 and 20:28 only 2 Thess 1:12; Titus 2:13; and 2 Pet 1:1 “by any probable exegesis” make such an assertion (ibid.).  V. Taylor regards Bultmann’s comment as an “understatement” and concedes only John 20:28 to be an unambiguous assertion (“Does the New Testament Call Jesus God?”, ExpTim 73 [1961-62] 116-18 [reprinted in New Testament Essays (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1970) 83-89].  Cf. also his The Person of Christ in New Testament Teaching [London: Macmillan, 1959] 55-56, 129-33, 134-37).  O. Cullmann accepts John 1:1 and 20:28 and adds 1:18 (with the reading μονογενὴς θεός).  He also affirms Heb 1:8-9; calls Rom 9:5 “quite probable” and both Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 “uncertain . . . but . . . probable”) (The Christology of the New Testament, rev. ed. [Philadelphia: Westminster, 1963] 308-14).  D. Guthrie has a list identical with Cullmann’s (New Testament Theology [Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1981] 338-42). L. Sabourin feels that John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 make an explicit  identification of Christ’s deity, though Rom 9:5 is more doubtful (Christology: Basic Texts in Focus [New York: Alba, 1984] 143-44).  E. Stauffer argues that John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Acts 20:28; Rom 9:5; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; and 1 John 5:20 are explicit affirmations (s.v. “θεός“ in TDNT 3.104-106).      J. Pohle lists John 1:1; 20:28; Rom 9:5; Titus 2:13; and 2 Pet 1:1 as explicit assertions (Christology: A Dogmatic Treatise on the Incarnation [St. Louis: B. Herder, 1943] 17).  A. W. Wainwright argues that John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Rom 9:5; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; and 2 Pet 1:1 are explicit assertions (The Trinity in the New Testament [London: SPCK, 1962] 54-69).  V. Perry, in his comparison of English translations, charts eight disputed passages: John 1:1, 18; Acts 20:28; Rom 9:5; 2 Thess 1:12; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; and 2 Pet 1:1 (“Problem Passages of the New Testament in Some Modern Translations. Does the New Testament call Jesus God?”, ExpTim 87 [1975-76] 214-15).   R. T. France argues that only John 1:1, 18; and 20:28 are unambiguous, though he lists as potential candidates also Acts 20:28; Rom 9:5; Gal 2:20; Col 2:2; 2 Thess 1:12; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; Jas 1:1; 2 Pet 1:1; and 1 John 5:20 (“The Worship of Jesus—A Neglected Factor in Christological Debate?”, Vox Evangelica 12 [1981] 23, 32-33.  Elsewhere, however, France argues that Acts 20:28; Rom 9:5; 2 Thess 1:12; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; 2 Pet 1:1; and 1 John 5:20 more than likely are affirmations of Christ’s deity [“Jésus l’unique: les fondements bibliques d’une confession christologique,” Hokhma 17 (1981) 37-38]).  R. E. Brown defends Christ’s deity in John 1:1, 18; Rom 9:5; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8-9; 2 Pet 1:1; and 1 John 5:20 (“Does the New Testament call Jesus God?”, TS 26 [1965] 553-554, 556-65).  R. N. Longenecker affirms John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Rom 9:5; 2 Thess 1:12 (“possibly”); Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; 2 Pet 1:1; and 1 John 5:20 (The Christology of Early Jewish Christianity [Naperville, IL: Alec R. Allenson, 1970] 136-41).  J. A. Ziesler apparently accepts only John 1:18; 2 Pet 1:1; and 1 John 5:20 (John 1:1 seems to be an oversight) (The Jesus Question [London: Lutterworth, 1980] 67).  Most surprisingly, D. Cupitt denies that any text is an explicit affirmation of Christ’s deity, though he does open the door for what might be called a functional (as opposed to ontological) divinity in John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Rom 9:5; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; and 2 Pet 1:1 (The Debate about Christ [London: SCM, 1979] 89-110, especially 109).

Finally, in the latest and by far most comprehensive treatment by M. J. Harris (Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus [Grand Rapids: Baker, 1992]) the author considers John 1:1 and 20:28 as “certain”; Rom 9:5; Titus 2:13; Heb 1:8; and 2 Pet 1:1 as “very probable” and John 1:18 as “probable” references to the deity of Christ (272 [the chart on 273 errs in that it treats Rom 9:5 as certain]). 

4Even here there is debate however.  See Harris, Jesus as God, 51-71 (on John 1:1), 105-129 (on John 20:28).

5In Acts 20:28; Gal 2:20; Col 2:2; and Jude 4 there are variae lectiones which involve TSKS.  These will be discussed in detail below.

6This is the title of the first American edition.  There are slight differences in earlier editions.  See below.  Unless otherwise noted, the edition used in this essay is the latest, the first American edition (a clone of the third British edition), published in Philadelphia by B. B. Hopkins in 1807.

7The first twenty-four pages (twenty-six in the 2d edition) of his Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article are, in fact, a duplication of that letter to an unnamed minister friend (dated 10 June 1778).  All six rules are laid down, with several examples.  Sharp’s usual practice was to make an ἀντίγραφον of his letters.  On this occasion, however, Sharp “had not leisure to copy the original letter” and, after repeated attempts to retrieve it over a span of several years, was able to obtain only a part of it (Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, 24).

8T. Burgess, Lord Bishop of St. David’s, editor of the first and second editions of Sharp’s work, apparently examined many of Sharp’s unpublished MSS, selecting this one for publication.  He saw it apparently for the first time in 1792 (correspondence from Burgess to Sharp, 15 December 1792 [quoted in Hoare, Memoirs, 2.372]).  The essay was not originally intended by Sharp for publication (cf. Sharp, Remarks, iv; Hoare, Memoirs, 2.300-301, citing a memorandum by Sharp on this work).

9A Tract on the Law of Nature.  One might note the cautious stance that Sharp took on his own work.  In the scripture index to this tract, there is no mention of Eph 5:5; 1 Tim 5:21;     2 Tim 4:1; Titus 2:13; or 2 Pet 1:1—all passages which Sharp would later argue fit his rule and thus bore testimony to Christ’s deity.  A year after it was published, however, Sharp wrote to a friend about his rule on the article (which letter is reproduced at the beginning of his Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article; see n. 84 above).  There he alludes to his having worked on the TSKS construction for some time and that he had, in fact, sent a preliminary draft of his views to “a very learned friend” who found several exceptions to Sharp’s first rule as he had at the time stated it (Remarks 1-2).  Although the many time references are not precise (e.g., “I have so long neglected” to write; “I had written,” “I was willing to wait”), it is possible, even likely, that Sharp had worked up a rough sketch of his rule while writing his Tract on the Law of Nature.  If so, he would have hesitated to include the rule in the tract because it had not yet been processed through sober reflection by himself or judicious examination by others.  Hence, he does not mention the christologically significant texts involving TSKS in his Tract on the Law of Nature.

10The first and second editions were published in Durham by L. Pennington in 1798 and 1802.   The third edition was published in London by Vernor and Hood in 1803.  The fourth, known as the first American edition, was merely a reprint of the third with a few typographical and spelling changes; it was published in Philadelphia by B. B. Hopkins in 1807.

The essential differences between the various editions are as follows.  (1) A few typographical mistakes were corrected in the second and following editions.  (2) The title changed slightly (viz. in punctuation and capitalization: the first and second editions had Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article in the Greek Text of the New Testament; Containing many New Proofs of the Divinity of Christ, from Passages, which are wrongly Translated in the Common English Version, the third edition read Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article in the Greek Text of the New Testament, Containing many New Proofs of the Divinity of Christ, from Passages which are wrongly translated in the common English Version, while the fourth edition read Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article in the Greek Text of the New Testament: Containing many New Proofs of the Divinity of Christ, from Passages which are wrongly Translated in the Common English Version (thus, a semi-colon/colon after New Testament and a comma/no punctuation after Passages are the only differences).  (3) The second and subsequent iterations include published periodical reviews of the first edition as an appendix, rendering the work nearly three times as long as the 1798 edition.  (4) The second and subsequent editions include excerpts from a lengthy rebuttal of Sharp’s Remarks by one pseudonymously named Gregory Blunt (Blunt’s work was originally published as a 218 page book entitled, Six More Letters to Granville Sharp, Esq., on his Remarks upon the Uses of the Article in the Greek Testament [London: J. Johnston, 1803]. Blunt’s real name was apparently Thomas Pearne); however, the second edition of Remarks appeared the same year as Blunt’s work (although Sharp’s second edition has a publication date of 1802 both were published in 1803 [Blunt’s tome in March, Sharp’s apparently sometime later since in his appendix [Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, 118] he cites a review article of Blunt’s work appearing in the Christian Observer, no. 6 [June 1803] 363 [sic: the pagination was 370-76]).  Hence, it has less interaction with it than do subsequent editions.

11Blunt’s work was originally published as a 218 page book entitled, Six More Letters to Granville Sharp, Esq., on his Remarks upon the Uses of the Article in the Greek Testament. London: J. Johnston, 1803. Blunt’s real name was apparently Thomas Pearne.

12Sharp, Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, 2.  See Wallace, “The Article with Multiple Substantives,” 44-46, for a discussion of the other five rules. 

13Ibid., 3 (italics in the original).

14Ibid., 5-6. 

15Ibid., 120.  Sharp also notes that the fourth rule embraces impersonal substantives exclusively (ibid., 121). 

16Ibid., 140-42. 

17It is not enough to say that both nouns have equal referents (as some have misunderstood Sharp to mean), nor that the single article simply unites them somehow: the point of Sharp’s rule is that both noun A and noun B refer to the same person (thus an identical referent).

18Sharp did not specify that it must have complete grammatical concord, e.g., by also having the same gender.  Thus whether Sharp would have applied his rule to 1 John 5:20 is not known.

19These criteria can also be seen from Sharp’s examples.  He produces twenty-five undisputed examples (i.e., those which do not impact the deity of Christ) from the NT.  Every one involves singular, non-proper, personal substantives, in grammatical concord with the article.

20 See later discussion for documentation of this point.

21Ibid., 25-62.  He also discussed Phil 3:3 as a pneumatologically significant text, according to the reading of Alexandrinus and other ancient authorities (29-31).

22Ibid., 3-7.  He further recognized that these twenty-five examples were not all the passages that came under the rubric of his rule (“There are several other texts wherein the mode of expression is exactly similar, and which therefore do necessarily require a construction agreeable to the same rule . . .” (ibid.).  On the other hand, Sharp did not know explicitly of any other texts (cf. his response to one Calvin Winstanley, A Dissertation on the Supreme Divine Dignity of the Messiah: in reply to a Tract, entitled, “A Vindication of certain Passages in the common English Version of the New Testament” [London: B. Edwards, 1806] 4). 

23Some of his examples involved readings found in the TR which have little claim to authenticity (e.g., τὸν τύφλον καὶ κώφον in Matt 12:22, Sharp’s lone example from the Gospels). 

24Ibid., 6.

25For a detailed treatment, see D. B. Wallace, “The Article with Multiple Substantives Connected by Καί in the New Testament: Semantics and Significance” (Ph.D. dissertation, Dallas Theological Seminary, 1995) 50-80.  What should be noted here is that the first wave of reactions to Sharp’s canon were sort of a backhanded confirmation of his rule.  One reviewer stated that the rule had been known for quite some time and that Sharp was not the first to state this principle.  In the British Critic 20.1 (July, 1802), the unnamed reviewer mentions Beza, Wolfius, Drusius, Bishop Bull, Calovius, Vitringa, and Dr. Twells as those who knew of the rule before Sharp.  Nevertheless, they do not lay down the limitations of the canon as Sharp had done.  Beza’s comments on Titus 2:13, which the reviewer gratuitously regarded as being just as clear as Sharp’s rule, are quoted here (Theodor Beza, Annotationes Maiores in Novum Dn. Nostri Iesu Christi Testamentum [2 vols.; n.p.: n.p., 1594] 2.478):

Quod autem ad alterum attinet, quum scriptum sit, ἐπιφανvειαν [sic] τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ, non autem τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ τοῦ σωτῆρος, dico non magis probabiliter ista posse ad duas distinctas personas referri quàm illam loquutionem ὁ Θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ.  Nam id certè postulat Graeci sermonis usus, quum unus tantùm sit articulus, duobus istis, nempe Θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος & Θεὸς καὶ πατήρ, communis: quum praesertim (ut antè dixi) nunquam ἐπιφανvεια [sic] aut παρουσία nisi uni Filio tribuatur.  Itaque sic concludo, Christum Iesum hic apertè magnum Deum dici, qui & beata illa spes nostra metonymicè vocatur.  Illi igitur, ut verè magno & aeterno Deo, . . . sit gloria & laus omnis in secula seculorum.

The only substantive grammatical insight Beza makes is that the single article unites both nouns.  He sees this unity as indicating identity not because of the construction alone, but because of theological considerations.  Clearly this is by no means as specific as Sharp’s rule.  Nevertheless, it should be noted that Beza’s instincts on the passage (and other christologically significant texts) ran along the same lines as Sharp’s (cf. Beza, Annotationes Maiores 2.376 [on Eph 5:5], 2.586 [on 2 Pet 1:1]).

None of the other authors mentioned by the reviewer articulated the rule as clearly as Sharp had done either.  For example, Campegius Vitringa, De Brief van den Apostel Paulus aan de gemeente der Galaten; als mede aan Titum: en uitgeleesene keurstoffen van eenige voorname texten des Nieuwen Testaments (Franecker: W. Bleck, 1728), though he has a lengthy discussion on Titus 2:13 (133-38), supports his view that Jesus is called θεός mostly with theological arguments.  His one grammatical statement falls far short of Sharp’s rule (135): “Want soo den Apostel door grooten God en Saligmaker onderscheiden persoonen hadde willen betekenen en aan wißsen hy soude een wooßdt—leegtje τῷ, vooß het wooßdt σωτῆρος, geset hebben des grooten Gods en des Saligmakers.”  Indeed, one gets the impression that the reviewer did not clearly understand Sharp’s rule, for the authorities he cites as anticipating his rule merely appeal to the single article governing both nouns without any more nuancing (such as the restrictions that Sharp laid down).

In the years which followed some reviewers would cite grammars that were decidedly against Sharp’s rule.  Note, for example, the anonymous review of Middleton’s Doctrine of the Greek Article in Monthly Review 62 (1810) 158-59, where the author mentions Campbell’s Philosophy of Rhetoric and Murray’s Grammar.  Yet these are works on English grammar and hence have nothing directly to do with Greek (cf. G. Campbell, The Philosophy of Rhetoric, [London: Strahan and Cadell, 1776] 52-57; L. Murray, English Grammar, Adapted to the Different Classes of Learners, rev. ed. [Bridgeport, CN: Josiah B. Baldwin, 1824] 300).

26For example, Blunt argued that “Many a man, even of those who are disposed to be dainty and fastidious, will swallow as sound and wholesome, if you ram it down his throat with an imposing air, and cry graecum est, that which, if you set before him as plain english [sic] fare, to be eaten at leisure, he will no sooner taste than he will spit it out of his mouth, and tell you it is no better than carrion” (Six More Letters, 19).  Elsewhere he dogmatically asserts that “The office of the article then being the same in english [sic] as in greek [sic], your rule may be tried by the one language as well as the other” (ibid., 12).  Blunt’s argument from English grammar pervades the entire work.  Cf., e.g., xiv, 12-13, 23-24, 26-27, 29, 41, 53-54, and especially his extended harangue on 17-22 as well as the contrived counter-example he produces from the English text of Deut 10:18 [ibid., 20, 53]). 

27Ibid., 126.  Others such as the anonymous reviewer of Middleton’s Doctrine of the Greek Article in Monthly Review 62 (1810) also argued from the standpoint of English grammar, assuming almost a universal language (or at least a one-to-one correspondence between Greek and English) on a surface structure.  He states that Middleton “is, however, quite singular in this opinion [that there is not a one-to-one correspondence], since scarcely a modern scholar can be found who has written on the Greek article without expressly noticing the great resemblance between it and the article in modern languages” (159).  It would seem that Middleton was linguistically ahead of his time.

28C. Winstanley, A Vindication of Certain Passages in the Common English Version of the New Testament. Addressed to Granvile Sharp, Esq. (Cambridge: University Press—Hilliard and Metcalf, 1819).  The first edition was published in 1805, still during Sharp’s lifetime (Liverpool: W. Jones). 

29Originally published in 1808.  The edition (“new edition”) used in this paper was published in 1841, incorporating notes by H. J. Rose (London: J. G. F. & J. Rivington, 1841).  The latest edition (1855) is merely a reprint of the 1841 edition.  Unless otherwise specified, all citations are to the 1841 edition.

30Note especially C. F. D. Moule, An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, 2d ed. (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1959) 94, 94 (n. 1), 109 (n. 3), 113 (n. 2), 114, 115, 116, 117, 122.  S. E. Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament (Sheffield: JSOT, 1992) 103, n. 1, acknowledges that Middleton’s tome is the “most thorough treatment of the Greek article to date . . . .” 

31See Middleton, Doctrine of the Greek Article, especially 56-70.

32Note spelling of middle name.  This is Winer’s spelling in his grammars (in both German and English).  Robertson et al. “Germanized” it beyond the original, to Benedikt.

33This is not meant to imply that Sharp’s rule was universally accepted before Winer argued against it.  On the contrary, Sharp had a worthy adversary in Winstanley as we have seen.  But either through lack of circulation of Winstanley’s essay, or because he did not have the stature of Winer, or for some other reason, Winstanley was unable to sound the death knell to Sharp’s rule—even though his arguments against Sharp’s principle are still the most sophisticated that I have come across.

Only occasionally have I seen a writer who has felt the impact of  Winstanley’s argumentation.  W. R. Gordon, for example, though holding to a high Christology, felt that Sharp’s adversaries “have discovered a multitude of exceptions [to Sharp’s rule], which compel us to be cautious in its application” (The Supreme Godhead of Christ [2d ed.; New York: Reformed Protestant Dutch Church, 1855] 64).  (It should be noted nevertheless that Gordon does not mention Winstanley by name.)  More significant is Ezra Abbot, who refers to Winstanley’s “valuable essay on the use of the Greek article” (“On the Construction of Titus II. 13,” in his The Authorship of the Fourth Gospel and other Critical Essays [Boston: G. H. Ellis, 1888] 444). 

34The Expositor, 8th series, 21 (1921) 185, 187.  What especially gives Robertson’s claims about Winer credence is, first, that he intended to rewrite Winer’s grammar in light of the papyri finds, thus rendering him, in a sense, a student of Winer; and, secondly, that he lived closer to the time of Winer and most likely gained the sense of this “strange timidity” which gripped many NT scholars at the turn of the century from personal contact.

35 G. B. Winer, A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, trans. and rev. W. F. Moulton, 3d ed., rev. (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1882) 162.

36J. H. Moulton, A Grammar of New Testament Greek, vol. 1: Prolegomena, 3d ed. (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1908) 84 (italics added).

37Cf., e.g., C. J. Ellicott, A Critical and Grammatical Commentary on the Pastoral Epistles (Andover: Draper, 1897) 207; H. Alford, “The Epistle to Titus,” in The Greek Testament with a Critically Revised Text, a Digest of Various Readings, Marginal References to Verbal and Idiomatic Usage, Prolegomena, and a Critical and Exegetical Commentary, rev. E. F. Harrison (Chicago: Moody, 1958) 421; R. M. Pope, The Epistles of Paul the Apostle to Timothy and Titus (London: C. H. Kelly. 1901) 157; H. Windisch, “Zur Christologie der Pastoralbriefe,” ZNW 34 [1935] 226; Taylor, The Person of Christ, 132; R. W. Funk, “The Syntax of the Greek Article: Its Importance for Critical Pauline Problems” (Ph.D. dissertation, Vanderbilt University, 1953) 68.  In passing, it should be noted that Funk’s appeal to Winer-Moulton for ambiguity contradicts his earlier (on the same page) approbation of Blass-Debrunner’s citing of Titus 2:13 as an example of identical referent.

38Cf., e.g., N. J. D. White, “The Epistle to Titus” in The Expositor’s Greek Testament (New York: Dodd, Mead & Co., 1897) 195; J. H. Bernard, The Pastoral Epistles in the Cambridge Greek Testament (Cambridge: University Press, 1899) 171; A. Plummer, “The Pastoral Epistles” in The Expositor’s Bible, ed. W. R. Nicoll (London: Hodder & Stoughton, 1894) 269; E. F. Scott, The Pastoral Epistles (New York: Harper and Brothers, n.d.) 169-70; N. Brox, Die Pastoralbriefe, in the Regensburger Neues Testament (4th ed.; Regensburg: Friedrich Pustet, 1969) 300; M. Dibelius and H. Conzelmann, The Pastoral Letters (Philadelphia: Fortress, 1972) 143; C. Spain, The Letters of Paul to Timothy and Titus (Austin, TX: R. B. Sweet, 1970) 183; E. Stock, Plain Talks on the Pastoral Epistles (London: Robert Scott, 1914) 89.

Among grammarians, note W. H. Simcox (The Language of the New Testament [London: Hodder & Stoughton, 1890]): “. . . in Tit. ii. 13, 2 Peter i. 1, we regard θεοῦ and σωτῆρος as indicating two Persons, though only the former word has the article” (50); A. Buttmann (A Grammar of the New Testament Greek [Andover: Warren F. Draper, 1873]), who heavily relies on Winer throughout his grammar, argues that “it is very hazardous in particular cases to draw important inferences, affecting the sense or even of a doctrinal nature, from the single circumstance of the use or the omission of the article; see e.g. Tit. ii. 13; Jude 4; 2 Pet. i. 1 . . .” (97); and M. Zerwick (Biblical Greek Illustrated by Examples [Rome: Pontificii Instituti Biblici, 1963]) states that the rule is only suggestive, “since the unity of article would be sufficiently accounted for by any conjunction, in the writer’s mind, of the notions expressed” (60).

39The 1841 edition.  The 1855 edition was merely a reprint.

40He concludes his discussion of Winer’s influence by saying that “Winer did not make out a sound case against Sharp’s principle as applied to 2 Peter i. 1 and Titus ii. 13.  Sharp stands vindicated after all the dust has settled” (“The Greek Article,” 187).

41A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, 4th ed. (New York: Hodder & Stoughton, 1923) 785-89.  The title of the first section is “Several Epithets Applied to the Same Person or Thing” (785-86).

42H. E. Dana and J. R. Mantey, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament (New York: Macmillan, 1927) 147 (as well, they give but three examples, two of which are among the exegetical cruces which concern this paper!). Dana-Mantey modify the statement of the rule in several minor points, however.

43S. E. Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament (Sheffield: JSOT, 1992) 110.  The error is repeated in the second edition (1994).

44Ibid.

45For example, K. Wuest (“The Greek Article in New Testament Interpretation,” BSac 118 [1961]) alleges that “Another function of the Greek article is in the construction called Granville Sharp’s rule, where two nouns in the same case are connected by kai, the first noun, articular, the second, anarthrous, the second referring to the same person or thing expressed by the first noun and being further description of it” (29).  Here, he assumes that impersonal nouns fit the rule and further argues that “Sharp’s rule makes the words [in Titus 2:13] ‘the hope’ and ‘the appearing’ refer to the same thing, and ‘God’ and ‘Saviour’ to be the same individual” (ibid.).  Wuest also thinks that plural nouns fit the rule: “The same rule identifies the ‘pastors and teachers’ of Ephesians 4:11 (AV) as one individual” (ibid.).  L. Radermacher (Neutestamentliche Grammatik, 2d ed. [Tübingen: J. C. B. Mohr, 1925]), though not mentioning Sharp, seems to imply that a single article uniting two substantives joined by καί speaks of an identical referent: “Wenn mehrere Substantiva [sic] in der Aufzählung miteinander verbunden werden, genügt oft der Artikel beim ersten Wort und zwar nicht allein bei gleichem Genus” (115).  He lists τὰ ἐντάλματα καὶ διδασκαλίας (Col 2:22) as evidence.  He goes on to say that the same phenomenon occurs in hellenistic Greek, citing ὁ ἥλιος καὶ σελήνη as an example (ibid.).  His two examples are both impersonal, one being singular and the other plural.  A case could almost be made for the first example expressing identity, but certainly not the second.  Similarly, S. G. Green (Handbook to the Grammar of the Greek Testament, rev. ed. [London: Religious Tract Society, 1912]) has both impersonal and plural constructions and speaks of such constructions “as forming one object of thought” (198; 232), a comment which equals Radermacher’s in its ambiguity.  W. D. Chamberlain (An Exegetical Grammar of the Greek New Testament [New York: Macmillan, 1941]) apparently has a clear understanding as to when the rule applies and when it does not, but he does not clearly articulate this to the reader (55).  BDF seem to support the rule in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 (they enlist the support of Robertson’s  essay, “The Greek Article and the Deity of Christ”), but also apply it to proper, impersonal (geographical) names (145; §276.3), citing Acts 19:21 (τὴν Μακεδονίαν καὶ  ᾿Αχαί>αν)!  They make no comment about the plural.  C. F. D. Moule (Idiom Book) has a sober treatment of the rule, seeing its application in the singular and questioning it in the plural (109-110).  But he sides with Radermacher by allowing it with impersonal nouns.  N. Turner (A Grammar of New Testament Greek, vol. 3: Syntax, by N. Turner [Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1963] and Grammatical Insights into the New Testament [Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1965]) seems to vacillate in his discussion, for he apparently allows the rule to stand with the singular nouns (Syntax, 181; Insights, 15-16), but also applies it to the plural at his discretion (Syntax, 181).  Thus he speaks of a “unified whole” with reference to Eph 2:20; Luke 22:4, and Acts 15:2, but then declares that this same construction may “indeed indicate that two distinct subjects are involved [italics mine]” (ibid.), citing the common phrase οἱ Φαρισαῖοι καὶ Σαδδουκαῖοι as an illustration.  It is doubtful that the construction indicates two antithetical ideas/groups; it is rather better to say that it allows for it.  Nevertheless, Turner has not shown an understanding of Sharp’s rule in his discussions.  J. H. Greenlee (A Concise Exegetical Grammar of New Testament Greek, 3d ed. [Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1963]) is very unclear when he applies the rule to impersonal constructions (Eph 3:18) and plurals (John 7:45) (50).  C. Vaughan and V. E. Gideon (A Greek Grammar of the New Testament [Nashville: Broadman, 1979]) apply the rule to both impersonal and personal constructions, making no comment about the plurals (83).  They do note, however, that there are exceptions with the impersonal constructions (ibid., n. 8).  J. A. Brooks and C. L. Winbery (Syntax of New Testament Greek [Washington: University Press of America, 1979]) apply the rule to personal, impersonal, and plural constructions explicitly (70-71).  B. W. Blackwelder (Light from the Greek New Testament [Anderson, IN: Warner, 1958]), after quoting Sharp’s rule via Robertson, argues that “there are many illustrations of this rule in the New Testament” (146).  He then lists four passages, including one which involves plural nouns (Eph 4:11) and two of the christologically significant—and, hence, debatable—texts (Titus 2:13; 2 Pet 1:1) (ibid.).  Finally, and most curiously, D. A. Carson (Exegetical Fallacies [Grand Rapids: Baker, 1984]) quotes Sharp’s rule as given in Brooks and Winbery’s Syntax, then argues that “The fallacy is in taking this rule too absolutely . . .” (84).  He then gives several illustrations of impersonal and plural constructions which do not fit the rule (85).  Yet nowhere does Carson evidence a clear understanding of the rule; he is simply dissatisfied with the form of it he cites, justifiably arguing that in such a form the rule only suggests unity, not identity.

46Even a scholar the stature of Ezra Abbot, though interacting explicitly with Sharp and Middleton (“Titus II. 13”), failed on two counts in his understanding of Sharp’s rule: (1) he suggests that τοὺς πωλοῦντας καὶ ἀγοράζοντας in Matt 21:12 proves Sharp’s rule wrong (“No one can reasonably suppose that the same persons are here described as both selling and buying,” 452), even though plural substantives are involved; and (2) he argues that English syntax is wholly analogous to Greek with reference to Sharp’s rule (451-52).  Yet, as we have seen, in his appendix, Sharp rightly takes G. Blunt to task for just such a supposition (Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, 126, 147).  We might also note that Longenecker, whose scholarship is unquestionably of the highest caliber, quotes Sharp’s rule in exactly the same form as is found in Dana-Mantey’s grammar (except for changing “farther” to “further” to conform with modern practice), though without credit. Longenecker simply remarks that the rule is “usually attributed to Granville Sharp” (The Christology of Early Jewish Christianity, 138).  Similarly, P. S. Berge only quotes Dana-Mantey’s definition of Sharp’s canon (though with proper credit) in his dissertation, “‘Our Great God and Savior’: A Study of Soter as a Christological Title in Titus 2:11-14” (Th.D. dissertation, Union Theological Seminary, Richmond, Virginia, 1973) 49.  Perhaps most remarkably, in R. W. Funk’s dissertation on the article in Paul (“The Syntax of the Greek Article”), Sharp’s monograph is not only not listed in the bibliography, but Sharp’s rule is nowhere mentioned by name.

47I am reminded here of C. S. Lewis’ delightful essay, “On the Reading of Old Books,” in God in the Dock: Essays on Theology and Ethics (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1970) 200-207, in which he quips, “if the average student wants to find out something about Platonism, the very last thing he thinks of doing is to take a translation of Plato off the library shelf and read the Symposium” (200).  Much of what he has to say in this essay, it seems, is applicable to our present concern.

48In Pauline Studies: Essays presented to Professor F. F. Bruce on his 70th Birthday, ed.    D. A. Hagner and M. J. Harris (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1980) 267.  This particular argument is given more space than any other in Harris’ article (267-69).

49The passages he cites are Acts 15:2 (τοὺς ἀποστόλους καὶ πρεσβυτέρους); 16:4 (τῶν ἀποστόλων καὶ πρεσβυτέρων); and 2 Cor 1:3 (ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ).  Harris himself admits that elsewhere in Acts “the repeated article in the phrase οἱ ἀπόστολοι καὶ πρεσβύτεροι (Acts 15:4, 6, 22) shows that the apostles of the Jerusalem church were a group distinct from the elders” (ibid.).  He sees the single article constructions of Acts 15:2 and 16:4 as indicating “a single administrative unit. . .”  But if true, even this does not conform to his statement of the rule, for though elder + apostle might = a unit, that is much different from saying that elder = apostle, which is the very point of Sharp’s rule, even as Harris has expressed it.  Elsewhere in his essay Harris indicates that he views impersonal nouns also to fall within the purview of the rule: “If the parallelism is intentional, ὁ μέγας θεός is the σωτήρ, just as ἡ μακαρία ἐλπίς is the ἐπιφάνεια” (270).

50This can be illustrated by reference to two passages: Eph 4:11 and Titus 2:13.  In Eph 4:11 the plural construction is used (τοὺς δὲ ποιμένας καὶ διδασκάλους) while in Titus 2:13 there are two constructions, one impersonal (τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν) and one which Sharp believed fit his rule (τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν).  As we have mentioned earlier, Sharp restricted the rule to personal singular nouns.  Yet, the plural construction in Eph 4:11 and the impersonal construction in Titus 2:13 are usually, or at least frequently, seen as fitting the rule, though with no proof that the rule could be expanded to include either construction. 

With reference to Eph 4:11, most commentators are agreed that one group is in view in this construction (but cf. G. H. P. Thompson, The Letters of Paul to the Ephesians, to the Colossians and to Philemon [CBC; Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1969] 69; and C. J. Ellicott, A Critical and Grammatical Commentary on St. Paul’s Epistle to the Ephesians [Andover: Warren F. Draper, 1885] 94.  Thompson simply asserts that “teachers were holders of another office” without giving any evidence.  Ellicott argues solely from scanty lexical evidence.)  Yet those who affirm that one group is identified by the phrase have little syntactical evidence on their side as well.  H. Alford (The Epistle to the Ephesians) argues that “from these latter not being distinguished from the pastors by the τοὺς δέ, it would seem that the offices were held by the same persons” (117).  But he gives no cross-references nor does he demonstrate that this is the normal usage of the plural construction.  B. F. Westcott (Saint Paul’s Epistle to the Ephesians [New York: Macmillan, 1906]) argues for one class “not from a necessary combination of the two functions but from their connexion with a congregation” (62).  C. Hodge (A Commentary on the Epistle to the Ephesians [New York: Robert Carter and Brothers, 1856]) boldly states that “The absence of the article before διδασκάλους proves that the apostle intended to designate the same persons as at once pastors and teachers [italics added]” (226).  But then he curiously backs off from such grammatical dogma by adding that “It is true the article is at times omitted between two substantives referring to different classes   . . .” (227), citing Mark 15:1 as evidence.  Finally, he reverts to his initial certitude by concluding, “But in such an enumeration as that contained in this verse . . . the laws of language require τοὺς δὲ διδασκάλους, had the apostle intended to distinguish the διδάσκαλοι from the ποιμένες [italics added]” (ibid.).  No evidence is given to support this contention.  It is significant, in fact, that of the commentaries surveyed, only Hodge mentioned any other text in which the plural construction occurred—a text which would not support his conclusions!  Eadie, Abbott, Salmond, Lenski, Hendriksen, Erdman, Kent, Barclay, Wuest, and Barth (to name but a few) also see the two terms referring to one group, though their arguments are either not based on syntax or make unwarranted and faulty assumptions about the syntax.  Some would insist that the article-noun-καί-noun plural construction requires that the second group is to be identified with the first.  Wuest articulates this assumption most clearly: “The words ‘pastors’ and ‘teachers’ are in a construction called Granvill [sic] Sharp’s rule which indicates that they refer to one individual” (K. Wuest, Wuest’s Word Studies from the Greek New Testament: Ephesians and Colossians [Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1953] 101). 

With reference to Titus 2:13, several scholars see the rule applying to “the blessed hope and appearing,” an impersonal construction.  E.g., R. St. John Parry (The Pastoral Epistles [Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1920]) argues that τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν means “that manifestation which is our hope” (81).  Some scholars explicitly invoke Sharp’s name when they discuss “the blessed hope and appearing” (e.g., E. K. Simpson, The Pastoral Epistles [London: Tyndale, 1954] 108); others do so implicitly (e.g., W. Hendriksen, Exposition of the Pastoral Epistles in New Testament Commentary [Grand Rapids: Baker, 1957] 372-73; R. C. H. Lenski, The Interpretation of St. Paul’s Epistle to Titus [Minneapolis: Augsburg, 1961] 922-23; F. F. Bruce, “‘Our God and Saviour’: A Recurring Biblical Pattern” [in The Saviour God: Comparative Studies in the Concept of Salvation Presented to Edwin Oliver James, ed. by S. G. F. Brandon; New York: Barnes & Noble, 1963] 51-52; R. O. Yeager, “Titus 1:1-3:15” in The Renaissance New Testament [Gretna: Pelican, 1985] 35-36).

Some scholars regard (without further comment on the syntactical principle they are invoking), that the single article with “God and Savior” is sufficient evidence that only one person is in view.  Note, e.g., P. Schepens, “De demonstratione divinitatis Christi ex epistula ad Titum II. 13,” Greg 7 (1926) 243; F. Ogara, “Apparuit gratia Dei Salvatoris nostri,” VD 15 (1935) 365- 66; C. Spicq, Les Épitres Pastorales (Paris: Lecoffre, 1947) 264-65; P. Dornier, Les Épitres Pastorales (Paris: Lecoffre, 1969) 144; R. Schnackenburg in R. Schnackenburg and P. Smulders, La christologie dans le Nouveau Testament et le dogme (Paris: Les Éditions du Cerf, 1974) 190.  Finally, we should mention R. H. Countess (The Jehovah’s Witnesses’ New Testament: A Critical Analysis of the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures [Philipsburg, NJ: Presbyterian and Reformed, 1982]) who, after quoting Sharp’s canon via Dana-Mantey, cautions that “Granville Sharp’s dogmatic ‘always’ certainly invites a search for exceptions and Matthew 17:1 may be one” (69).  But this lone “exception” which Countess gives involves proper names (τὸν Πέτρον καὶ  ᾿Ιάκωβον καὶ  ᾿Ιωάννην)!

These few examples of scholars’ misunderstanding of Sharp’s principle could be reproduced manifold.  These are given to show that it is hardly an exaggeration to say that almost without exception, those who seem to be acquainted with Sharp’s rule and agree with its validity, misunderstand it and abuse it.

51In passing, three other studies should be mentioned.  R. D. Durham, “Granville Sharp’s Rule” (unpublished doctoral paper, Grace Theological Seminary, 1972), acknowledges that Sharp’s canon did not cover plural nouns or proper names, but he thinks that Sharp meant to include impersonal nouns as meeting the requirements (7).  M. L. Johnson, “A Reconsideration of the Role of Sharp’s Rule in Interpreting the Greek New Testament” (M.A. thesis, University of Mississippi, 1986), assumes that Sharp’s rule only dealt with conceptual unity, even going so far as to say that Sharp’s “principle gained general acceptance by both Classical and New Testament grammarians” (54).  He lists among the TSKS constructions which fit Sharp’s canon plurals, impersonals, and abstracts (70-71, 73).  G. W. Rider, “An Investigation of the Granville Sharp Phenomenon and Plurals” (Th.M. thesis, Grace Theological Seminary, 1980), sides with Durham in treating plurals and proper nouns as exceptions, but impersonal nouns as fitting the rule (23-25).  It may be fairly said that in each of these studies there was a confusion between unity of referents and identity of referents.

52In the last three decades there has been something of a reversal of the trend started by Winer.  To be sure, it is only a trickle, but there is some evidence that Sharp’s rule is once again becoming known and is being invoked by NT scholars.  For details, see Wallace, “The Article with Multiple Substantives,” 75-80.

53There is no need to speak of as the “definite” article because, as H. B. Rosén (Early Greek Grammar and Thought in Heraclitus: The Emergence of the Article [Jerusalem: Israel Academy of Sciences and Humanities, 1988] 25) observes, “this term is justified only when a language has at least two of these elements, one of which is a determinator.  I know of no language which, having only one ‘article,’ assigns to it an ‘undetermining’ function.”

54P. Chantraine, “Le grec et la structure les langues modernes de l’occident,” Travaux du cercle linguistique de Copenhague 11 (1957) 20-21.

55Rosén. Heraclitus, 27.

56Although most grammarians recognize this, recently R. A. Young (Intermediate New Testament Greek: A Linguistic and Exegetical Approach [Nashville: Broadman, 1994] 55) announced that “The basic function of the article is to make a noun definite” (55).  Such an inaccuracy is all the more surprising in light of Young’s purportedly linguistic approach.  As soon as he stated this view he backpedaled by pointing out that “There are, however, many exceptions.  Perhaps this general rule should be restated . . .” (56).  In some respects even worse is the view of J. A. Brooks and C. L. Winbery (Syntax of New Testament Greek [Washington, D.C.: University Press of America, 1979] 67): “The basic function of the Greek article is to point out, to draw attention to, to identify, to make definite, to define, to limit.”  For although their basic definition is more nuanced, their general principle retreats into an unfounded and unreasonable assertion:

Generally, though not always, substantives with the article are definite or generic, while those without the article are indefinite or qualitative.  It would probably be an accurate summary statement to say that the presence of the article emphasizes identity, the absence of the article quality.

57The article does not necessarily or even normally determine in such constructions.  For example, every salutation found in the corpus Paulinum includes the phrase ἀπὸ θεοῦ πατρός, frequently followed in the body of the text by ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατήρ (2 Cor 1:3; Gal 1:4; Eph 1:3; Col 1:3 [v.l.]).  Yet in both the anarthrous and articular constructions neither θεός nor πατήρ could be considered indefinite.  The reason for the article is not in such cases to make definite an expression which would otherwise be indefinite.

58This is similar to the modern use of the hyphen in adnominal expressions such as “a made-for-TV movie,” or “the every-other-Tuesday debate.”  It would not be too far off the mark to read Heb 12:2 as “the founder-and-perfecter-of-the-faith Jesus.”

59E.g., as in the TSKS construction, when prefixed to a prepositional phrase, or to introduce a quotation.  In such instances the resultant concept is typically more than a single word could convey.

60P. Cotterell and M. Turner, Linguistics and Biblical Interpretation (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1989) 89.

61G. B. Caird, The Language and Imagery of the Bible (Philadelphia: Westminster, 1980) 9.  For further distinctions and illustrations, cf. J. P. Louw, Semantics of Biblical Language (Philadelphia: Fortress, 1982) 50, 54-55; Caird, idem, 10-12, 45, 49, 52, 64, 68-72, 100, 238, and especially 54-59; T. Givón, “Definiteness and Referentiality,” in Syntax, vol. 4 of Universals of Human Language, ed. J. H. Greenberg (Stanford: Stanford University Press, 1978) 293-94; P. H. Matthews, Syntax (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1981) 225-27; and Cotterell and Turner, idem, 77-90.

62Some have been confused over this text, assuming that it fits Sharp’s rule.  Generally this confusion is exacerbated because (1) all of the terms do apparently refer to God’s love, yet even here it would not be appropriate to say that the length is identical with the height; (2) the figurative language compounds the problem because the imagery and its referent are both somewhat elusive; and (3) there is a widespread confusion about what Sharp’s rule actually addresses: it is not mere equality, but identity that is in view.

63On ἀρχιερεύς, see G. Schrenk, “ἀρχιερεύς,” TDNT, 3.270-71; Jeremias, Jerusalem, 179-80; Schürer, Jewish People, 2.212-13; on γραμματεύς, see Jeremias, Jerusalem, 236; Schürer, Jewish People, 2.212-13; on πρεσβύτερος, see Griechisch-deutsches Wörterbuch zu den Schriften des Neuen Testaments und der frühchristlichen Literatur, by W. Bauer; 6th ed. rev. by V. Reichmann, K. Aland, and B. Aland (Berlin/New York: Walter de Gruyter, 1988; henceforth, abbreviated BAGR), s.v. “πρεσβύτερος,” 2.a.β.; G. Bornkamm, “πρεσβύτερος,” TDNT, 6.659; Schürer, Jewish People, 2.212-13.

64Although τε is in the middle of the construction, the total construction emulates TSKS.

65Doctrine of the Greek Article, 62.  Middleton further points out that an impersonal object can, of course, be described by two or more substantives, but that such is extremely rare.  In a lengthy footnote (62-63 [n. 1]) he reasons that

Nouns expressive of inanimate substances seem to have this difference, that though they have attributes (and we have no idea of any thing which has not) yet those attributes, from their inertness and quiescence, make so little impression on the observer, that he does not commonly abstract them from his idea of the substance, and still less does he lose sight of the substance, and use its name as expressive of the attribute.  Add to this, that to characterize persons by the names of things would be violent and unnatural, especially when two or more things wholly different in their natures are to be associated for the purpose: and to characterize any thing by the names of other things would be “confusion worse confounded.”

Middleton distinguishes between substances and abstract ideas, though he argues that abstract ideas are also excluded from the rule for reasons similar to those related to proper names (63).

66Ibid., 63.

67Ibid., 62-63, n. 1.

68Ibid., 63.

69Ibid.

70Ibid., 65.

71Cotterell and Turner, Linguistics and Biblical Interpretation, 83.

72Ibid., 46.

73Webster’s Seventh New Collegiate Dictionary (Springfield, MA: G. & C. Merriam, 1963.  Cf. also Caird, Language and Imagery, 9, 45; Cotterell and Turner, Linguistics and Biblical Interpretation, 45, 83, 103; and D. A. Black, Linguistics for Students of New Testament Greek: A Survey of Basic Concepts and Applications (Grand Rapids: Baker, 1988) 130-31.

74Caird, Language and Imagery, 45.

75Ibid., 9.

76Further distinctions of proper names will be discussed below in the appropriate section.

77It is possible that καί is ascensive here, in which case the construction is broken but the referent is still the same.

78Cf., e.g., Luke 20:37; John 20:17; Rom 15:6; 1 Cor 15:24.

79Cf., e.g., Matt 27:40; John 6:33; 8:50; Acts 15:38; 2 Cor 1:22; 2 Thess 2:4; Rev 1:5.

80Personal singular constructions with substantival adjectives are rare, but note the following: Matt 12:22; Acts 3:14; Phlm 1; 1 Pet 4:18; Rev 3:17.

81As in Phil 2:25; 1 Thess 3:2; 1 Tim 5:5.

82Note, for example, the direct objects in Eph 2:14 and the possessive pronoun attached to the first noun in 2 Pet 1:11.

83Cf. John 20:17; 1 Thess 3:2; 2 Pet 1:11; 2:20; 3:18; Rev 1:9.

84Not all agree with this number, however.  For example, C. Kuehne lists eighty-nine constructions which fit the requirements of the rule (“The Greek Article and the Doctrine of Christ's Deity (Part II)” Journal of  Theology 13 [December 1973] 23-26), and R. D. Durham lists 143 constructions (ninety-six personal and forty-seven impersonal; “Granville Sharp's Rule” [unpublished doctoral research paper, Grace Theological Seminary, 1972] 16).  (Interestingly, Sharp lists only twenty-five constructions to prove the validity of his rule [Remarks, 3-7]).  This discrepancy has two roots, one textual and one grammatical.

On the textual front, Kuehne mentions Nestle’s 20th edition of Novum Testamentum Graece (1950) as the basis of his research (ibid., 16), while neither Durham nor Sharp mention their textual basis.  Our study is based on the text of Nestle-Aland’s 27th edition of Novum Testamentum Graece (=UBSGNT4).  Thus, for example, ὁ πιστεύσας καὶ βαπτισθείς in Mark 16:16, since it is found in double brackets in Nestle-Aland27, is omitted from our list.  Note also the variae lectiones in Matt 12:22; 13:23; Mark 12:26; Gal 1:15; Col 1:3, 12; 2:2; 3:17.  In passing, we note that every one of these variant readings do have an identical referent. 

Grammatically, we can dispense with Durham’s forty-seven impersonal constructions, because Durham confuses identity of referent with unity of referents.  As well, Kuehne and Durham both mention several examples of participles and adjectives which are more likely merely adjectival rather than substantival.  For example, in John 5:35 Jesus says that John was “a burning and shining lamp” (RSV): ὁ λύχνος ὁ καιόμενος καὶ φαίνων.  The participles are not substantival here, but are adjectival in the second attributive position to ὁ λύχνος.  In Rom 4:17 Paul speaks of “the God. . . who gives life to the dead and calls into existence the things that do not exist” (RSV): θεοῦ τοῦ ζῳοποιοῦντος τοὺς νεκροὺς καὶ καλοῦντος τὰ μὴ ὄντα ὡς ὄντα.  Here the participles are in the third attributive position (arthrous adjuncts modifying an anarthrous substantive).  Apart from the impersonal constructions in Durham’s list, all but a handful of the grammatically illegitimate examples are of this kind—i.e., they are either participles or adjectives in the second or third attributive position.  Cf. Matt 23:37; Luke 12:47; 13:34; John 3:29; 12:29; 21:24 ; Rom 2:3; 2 Cor 2:14; 5:18; Gal 1:15; 2:20; 2 Thess 2:16; 2 Tim 1:9; Jas 1:5; 1 Pet 1:21; Rev 3:14; 6:10.  (These instances should be distinguished from texts such as 2 Thess 2:4 [ὁ ἀντικείμενος καὶ ὑπεραιρόμενος] where the participles seem to be appositional [hence, “the man of lawlessness, the son of perdition, the one who opposes and exalts himself”].  Cf. also 2 Cor 1:22; Eph 2:14; Heb 7:1; Rev 3:7; 22:8.)  In this connection, two other disputable passages should be mentioned, for we regard them as legitimate.  John 11:2 has ἡ ἀλείψασα τὸν κύριον μύρῳ καὶ ἐκμάξασα [“the one who anointed . . . and wiped”] which we take to be in predicate relation to the subject, Μαριάμ (note the equative verb ἦν which could not make adequate sense if taken in the existential sense of “was there”).  And Phlm 1 reads τῷ ἀγαπητῷ καὶ συνεργῷ ἡμῶν.  Both adjectives are more than likely substantival since the second adjective, συνεργός, is always substantival in the NT (so BAGR), and the καί most naturally connects these two terms.  Finally, we consider 1 John 5:20 (“the true God and eternal life” [οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος]) to be doubtful, for there not only are the genders different, but ζωὴ αἰώνιος ostensibly has an impersonal referent (though the author’s customarily cryptic style, as well as the lone subject [οὗτος], could arguably support a personal referent—so  R. Brown, “Does the New Testament Call Jesus God?”, TS 26 (1965) 557-58).  See discussion of this text in Wallace, “The Article with Multiple Substantives,” 271-77.

85In the Journal of Theology 13 (September 1973) 12-28; 13 (December 1973) 14-30; 14 (March 1974) 11-20; 14 (June 1974) 16-25; 14 (September 1974) 21-33; 14 (December 1974) 8-19; 15 (March 1975) 8-22.

86 This “all” must be qualified: see previous note.

87JT 13 (December 1973) 28.

88Vindication, 36.  See p. 8 for a similar comment.

89Ibid., 38.

90Ibid., 39-40. 

91There is in fact but one passage which could possibly be taken as constituting a violation to Sharp’s principle. In 1 Pet 4:18, “the godless and sinful man” (ὁ ἀσεβὴς καὶ ἁμαρτωλός), if rendered “the godless man and sinner” might suggest more than one referent.  But surely that is the English way of looking at the passage, not the Greek.  The antecedent in v 17 (τῶν ἀπειθούντων) clearly implies that all disobedient persons are godless and sinful.  Nevertheless, since all three terms are generic, this may be a moot point (see later discussion).

92In an earlier edition of Middleton, the pages may be as high as 157 (as in the 2d ed. of 1828, rev. J. Scholefield), but the type is larger and actually contains less material.

93For Eph 5:5 see 362-67; for Titus 2:13 see 393-96; for 2 Pet 1:1 see 432-35.

94Middleton lists this passage as Vita Cicero, “Ed. Bast. p. 68” (58).  The modern standardized reference is Vita Cicero 3.5.

95 Middleton lists this as de Cor. §61 (=18.212).

96Cont. Ctes. §56. 

97Doctrine of the Greek Article, 69.

98B. L. Gildersleeve, Syntax of Classical Greek from Homer to Demosthenes (New York: American Book Company, 1911) 2.277-78 (§603, 605).

99E.g., Xenophon, Anabasis 1.7.2, speaks of “the generals and captains” (τοὺς στρατηγοὺς καὶ λοχαγούς); Plato, Republic 364.A, tells of the beauty of both sobriety and righteousness (καλὸν μὲν ἡ σωφροσύνη τε καὶ δικαιοσύνη).

100Sophocles, Electra 991: τῷ λέγοντι καὶ κλύοντι σύμμαχος (“there is an advocate for the one who speaks and listens”).

101R. Kühner, Satzlehre, vol. 2 of Ausführliche Grammatik der griechischen Sprache, rev. B. Gerth (Leipzig: Hahn, 1898) 611, §463.2.

102E.g., τοῖς ὑμετέροις αὐτῶν παισὶ καὶ γυναίξιν (“your own children and wives”) in Lycurgus 141; τῆς δὲ θαλάσσης καὶ πόλεως (“the sea and city”) in Thucydides 1.143.

103Middleton flatly states, “I do not recollect any similar example” (Doctrine of the Greek Article, 66).

104H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar, rev. G. M. Messing (Cambridge, MA: Harvard Press, 1956).

105E. Schwyzer, Syntax und Syntaktische Stilistik, vol. 2 of Griechische Grammatik, completed and rev. by A. Debrunner (München: C. H. Beck, 1959) 24.  Their treatment gives no illustrations not listed in the other standard grammars.

106In fact, it is just possible that these grammarians shied away from the personal singular constructions precisely because such constructions indicated more than the vague Gesamtvorstellung was meant to convey.

107Most today concede that the NT vocabulary is to be illuminated by the papyri, but that the syntax is, generally speaking, somewhere between that of classical usage and the non-literary documents.  Cf., e.g., F. Blass, Grammar of New Testament Greek, 2d ed. (London: Macmillan, 1911) 3 (though this attitude was somewhat reversed by the 9th-10th ed.: BDF, 2 §3); Robertson, Grammar, 83-84; L. Rydbeck, “What Happened to New Testament Greek Grammar after Albert Debrunner?”, NTS 21 (1974) 424-427; R. G. Hoerber, “The Greek of the New Testament: Some Theological Implications,” Concordia Journal 2 (November, 1976) 251-56; S. E. Porter, Verbal Aspect in the Greek of the New Testament, with Reference to Tense and Mood (Bern/New York: Peter Lang, 1989) 111-56.  S. E. Porter’s recent article, “Did Jesus Ever Teach in Greek?”, TynBull 44 (1993) 199-235, though on an ancillary point, canvasses the general discussion of Greek in first century Palestine.  He concludes that Greek was the lingua franca even among the Jews (i.e., that it was the primary language spoken in Palestine, though not the only one).  Several essays by A. W. Argyle, dealing typically with specific constructions, have argued for the almost literary quality of NT Greek (e.g., “An Alleged Semitism,” ExpTim 80 [1968-69] 285-86; “The Genitive Absolute in Biblical Greek,” ExpTim 69 (1958) 285; “Greek among the Jews of Palestine in New Testament Times,” NTS 20 [1973-74] 87-89).

In addition, with specific reference to the use of the article, NT grammarians generally recognize that “in the N.T. the usage is in all essentials in harmony with Attic, more so than is true of the papyri” (Robertson, ibid., 754).  Cf. also Moulton, Prolegomena, 80-81.

108E. Mayser, Satzlehre, vol. 2.2 of Grammatik der griechischen Papyri aus der Ptolemäerzeit (Berlin: Walter de Gruyter, 1934) 1-50 (§53-63).

109F. Völker, Der Artikel, vol. 1 of Syntax der griechischen Papyri (Münster: Westfälischen Vereinsdruckerei, 1903) 5-19 (note especially p. 8).  This volume is essentially an abbreviation and translation (from the Latin) of Völker’s doctoral thesis, “Papyrorum graecarum syntaxis specimen,” Universitate Rhenana, 1900.

110F. Eakin, “The Greek Article in First and Second Century Papyri,” AJP 37 (1916) 340.

111Ibid., 334-35.

112Moulton, Prolegomena, 80-81; Robertson, Grammar, 754.

113Non-Literary Papyri: Private Affairs, vol. 1 of Select Papyri, trans. A. S. Hunt and C. C. Edgar (Cambridge, MA: Harvard Press, 1932) and Non-Literary Papyri: Public Documents, vol. 2 of Select Papyri, trans A. S. Hunt and C. C. Edgar (Cambridge, MA: Harvard Press, 1934). 

114P. Cairo Masp. 67353.25-26 refers to “the . . . scribe and tabularius and public defensor” (τὸν . . . σκρίβα καὶ ταβουλάριον καὶ δημέκδικον).  The context does not help here (had the construction been in the nominative case, the verb number would have solved the problem).  I must further admit that since I am no papyrologist I cannot tell if these three offices could ever be predicated of one individual.  Nevertheless, the text looks very much as though three individuals are in view.  The significance of this text will be dealt with later. 

115This text is doubly significant, for not only does it fit Sharp’s rule but, as in 2 Pet 1:1, a possessive pronoun is attached to the first noun. There are several examples of this in the papyri (see later discussion).

116So also in Sitzungsber. Preuss. Ak. 1911, p. 796, which also involves a possessive pronoun attached to the first substantive: Βαιβίου τοῦ ἐμοῦ φίλου καὶ γραμματέως (“Baebius, my friend and secretary”).

117Cf. P. Oxy. 1895.1-2; P. Oxy. 138.3; P. Oxy. 139.5; P. Oxy. 135.2; P. Oxy. 1038.4-5;  P. Oxy. 1892.3-4; PSI 786.3; P. Lond. 1727.2; P. Cairo Masp. 67032.2, 77-78; P. Oxy. 144.20.  That “Augustus” was a title and not a proper name is obvious from the fact that several different men were given this  epithet (e.g., Mauricius in P. Lond. 1727.2; in P. Cairo Masp. 67032.2, Flavius Justinianus).  See later discussion on what constitutes a proper name.

118Cf. P. Oxy. 1890.1 which reads “the eternal Augustus, and Venantius” (τοῦ αἰωνίου Αὐγούστου . . . καὶ Βηναντίου).

119Besides the texts mentioned already, cf. P. Grenf. ii. 87.1; P. Oxy.  138.1; P. Oxy. 139.1; Class. Phil. xxii., p. 243.1; Rev Ég. 1919, p. 204.1; P. Oxy. 1680.19; P. Oxy. 925.3-4; Sitzungsber. Preuss. Ak. 1911, p. 796.38-39; P. Oxy. 2106.24-25; J.E.A. xviii, p. 70.30; P. Graux 2.15-16; P. Amh. 77.30-31; P. Ryl. 114.30; BGU 1749.4; BGU 1754, ii.11-12; P. Cairo Masp. 67321.1; P. Grenf. ii. 14(b); BGU 1035.1, 20.

120Cf. also P. Oxy. 123.21-22; P. Oxy. 1296.8-17; P. Tor. 13 (=UPZ 118).11; P. Cairo Zen. 59341 (a).20; P. Tebt. 322.17-20; P. Cairo Masp. 67032.57; P. Oxy. 1449.8-9; P. Oxy. 1115.4-5;     P. Oxy. 1835.3-6.

121A large part of the reason for this is that Winer’s shadow loomed over the discussion out of all proportion to his actual contribution to the debate.  Hence, Winstanley’s name was virtually forgotten once a more sensitive linguistic approach was adopted in this century.

In passing it should be noted that Sharp himself attempted to answer Winstanley in his A Dissertation on the Supreme Divine Dignity of the Messiah: in reply to a Tract, entitled, “A Vindication of certain Passages in the common English Version of the New Testament” (London: B. Edwards, 1806).  But he completely ignored the extra-NT examples Winstanley produced, arguing that since such were not written by the inspired writers they could have no impact on the syntax of the NT (ibid., 56).

122Apparently from Ethica Nicomachea 1148a (or several other places in Aristotle which have the same wording), though the reference in Winstanley is, like Middleton’s references, pre-standard.

123Cf., e.g., Ethica Nicomachea 1145b; 1102b; 1130b; Ethica Eudemia 1218a; Plato, Gorgias 460.e.

124Vindication, 9.

125This is true even if, as several grammarians hold, in a given author’s use of a generic noun in the singular he is thinking of a representative of the class, for a particular, real individual is not in view.  Nevertheless, this “representative” view is probably not to be insisted on, for (1) not only do generic nouns occur in the plural, but also (2) πᾶς is used with singular generics at times.

126In light of this restriction, however, we may need to modify our “head count” within the NT, for twenty-four of the eighty constructions fitting Sharp’s rule involve generic substantives.  Nevertheless, it should equally be noted that (1) most of these are participial constructions and, just as plural participial constructions, they always had an identical referent; (2) none of Winstanley’s examples of generic substantives involved participles, nor could I find any that did; (3) our one “problem” passage in the NT, 1 Pet 4:18, involved generic adjectives, bringing it closer to Aristotle’s “exceptions” than any other construction in the NT; and (4) none of the wholly noun constructions in the NT were generic (though 1 Tim 5:5 had a noun and participle).  It may also be observed that ten of the NT generics employed πᾶς.  As well, most generics in the construction were semantically equivalent to a double protasis conditional clause.  Hence, both conditions would typically need to be met for the fulfillment to take place (cf. Matt 7:26; John 5:24; 12:48; Jas 1:25; 1 John 2:4; Rev 16:15).  All of this is to suggest a different semantic situation than what we find in Aristotle’s orations.

127“In this verse the Hebrew text lacks an article before the word for ‘king.’  That the Septuagint should also lack the article is therefore not surprising . . .” (C. Kuehne, “The Greek Article and the Doctrine of Christ’s Deity,” Journal of Theology 14.2 [June 1974] 19).  Though true, “king” does not constitute the entire construction.  Kuehne does not address the fact that יהוה is rendered with less than “slavish literalism” as ὁ θεός.

128B. K. Waltke, and M. O’Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax (Winona Lake, IN: Eisenbrauns, 1990) 180, §10.3.1b.

129There is as well the possibility that the LXX had a different Vorlage in one or more of these instances.  If so, then we might indeed say that the LXX is slavishly literal here.  The problem is that without MS testimony in support, this supposition cannot be placed on the level of certainty.

130Rev 3:7 is the only exception (ὁ ἀνοίγων καὶ οὐδεὶς κλείσει, καὶ κλείων καὶ οὐδεὶς ἀνοίγει).  Though the interfering pronouns are in the same case, they are not syntactically attached to the TSKS substantives.

131Against the argument that syntactically unrelated words disrupt the semantics of Sharp’s rule is the fact that even verbs can intervene (though only rarely is this seen; cf. Rev 3:7, discussed above) without affecting the sense of the construction.  Further, the καί in Prov 24:21 still connects the two accusatives syntactically, in spite of the presence of the vocative.

132This is not to say that one can easily detect which metric or other poetic considerations are of most concern to the translator.  Meter is one of those elusive features of the Greek language: to know that one is dealing with poetry may brace the modern reader for unusual lexical and syntactical features, but it does not necessarily aid in the analysis of the genre.  This can be illustrated in the NT with a cursory examination of the steady stream of literature over the past twenty years on the kenosis (Phil 2:5-11): although most NT scholars recognize this text as poetry, there is no consensus about the number of strophes, what belongs to each, or whether the text has some interpolated material.  As O’Brien cautions, “There is still considerable uncertainty about the stylistic criteria” (P. T. O’Brien, The Epistle to the Philippians: A Commentary on the Greek Text [NIGTC; Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1991] 191).  See O’Brien’s succinct and up-to-date survey of the literature on this problem (ibid., 186-93).

133Cf. V. Bers, Greek Poetic Syntax in the Classical Age (New Haven, CN: Yale University Press, New Haven, 1984), the entirety of which is dedicated to an examination of the differentiae between prose syntax and poetic syntax; A. C. Moorhouse, The Syntax of Sophocles (Leiden: E. J. Brill, 1982) 1, 10, 13, 135, 143, 177; N. Cosmas, “Syntactic Projectivity in Romanian and Greek Poetry,” Revue roumaine de linguistique 31 (1986) 89-94.

134Bers notes as his lead example of major differences between prose and poetry “the omission (or, better, nonexpression) of the definite article in poetry as compared with all varieties of prose . . .” (Greek Poetic Syntax in the Classical Age, 5; cf. also 190-92).  This convention goes as far back as Sophocles: “Absence of the article (when compared with classical prose) is . . . freely indulged . . .” (Moorhouse, The Syntax of Sophocles, 143).

135Prov 24:21 (LXX) is also quoted verbatim, from time to time, in the fathers (cf., e.g., Chrysostom, Fragmenta in Proverbia in MPG, 64.733; John Damascus, Sacra parallela, 95.1208, and ibid., 1292.  But it still qualifies as translation Greek.   

136H. Stein’s edition.

137Doctrine of the Greek Article, 66.

138Ibid., 99-100.

139Cf. Radermacher, Grammatik, 113-14; R. Funk, “The Syntax of the Greek Article: Its Importance for Critical Pauline Problems” (Ph.D. dissertation, Vanderbilt University, 1953) 69-70.

140In some respects, even the second nominal is really not required.  But if we translate the καί as “namely,” recognizing its epexegetical force, the second substantive is seen to clarify or specify the first.  If the TSKS’s force bears some semblance to the epexegetical genitive (e.g., “the sign of circumcision”) or the arthrous appositive to proper names (e.g., “Peter the fisherman”), then it becomes obvious that a third nominal is not required to clarify the first, but a second may be.

141Although the last two elements are joined to the first three by δέ rather καί, the construction emulates a pentamerous TSKS construction.  The δέ is thrown into the middle of the construction as a mild contrast to indicate the difference in the relationship that Epaphroditus had to the Philippians, but not to indicate a different referent.  Indeed, the δέ is essential to the argument.

142Cf. M. Silva, Philippians (Wycliffe Exegetical Commentary; Chicago: Moody, 1988)   2-5, for a decent historical reconstruction of the occasion for this letter.

143Most of the other TSKS constructions in the NT involving enumeration are quite similar.  That is to say, emphasis or contrast is seen in each of them (note Luke 20:37; John 20:17; Col 4:7; Rev 3:17).  Only in Luke 6:47 is the threefold description used for identification, but here the substantival participles semantically function in a conditional way for the generic group in view (one must come and hear and do to receive the blessing). 

144Significantly, our one “problem” passage in the papyri, P. Cairo Masp. 67353.25-26 (“the . . . scribe and tabularius and public defensor” [τὸν . . . σκρίβα καὶ ταβουλάριον καὶ δημέκδικον]), belongs to this category.  See n. 99.  Additionally, it should be noted, however, that this particular papyrus is not only very late (569 CE), but also was the only document which bore another anomaly, viz. plural nouns (other than θεός) having the same referent (see below for discussion).

145We are not here implying that there are no other exceptions to Sharp’s canon in Greek literature; rather, that in the writings we examined all other exceptions fit into one of the four categories of Winstanley.

146The translation is my own; the text is that of J. R. S. Sterrett (based on three medieval MSS) in the LCL.  The edition by Meineke, however, inserts the article before ἕβδομος, thus breaking the TSKS construction and removing this passage from the list of exceptions to Sharp’s rule (Strabo, Geographica, ed. A. Meineke [3 vols.; Leipzig: Teubner, 1877]) loc. cit.

147Doctrine of the Greek Article, 67-69.  Kuehne (“Christ’s Deity [Part IV],” 18-19), and E. A. Blum, “Studies in Problem Areas of the Greek Article” (Th.M. thesis: Dallas Theological Seminary, 1961) 32-34, use similar reasoning.

148Doctrine of the Greek Article, 100, n. 1.

149Caird, Language and Imagery, 45 (in defining proper names).

150Moorhouse, Syntax of Sophocles, 144.

151Although he used the Textus Receptus as his basic text, Sharp did discuss (and sometimes adopt) variants in several places, in particular in his discussions of these four texts (see Sharp, Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, 5, 26, 28, 30, 31, 35, 36-37, 38-43, and passim).  (Indeed, he shows some sophistication in the matter, for not only does he discuss the readings and punctuation of certain manuscripts, but he also shows awareness of the text and variants found in “sixty-four printed Greek Testaments, in the possession of the Author” [ibid., 40].)  In Acts 20:28 the reading τοῦ κυρίου καὶ θεοῦ is supported by C3, P, 049, part of the Byzantine minuscules, et al., while both the TR and NA26/27 have τοῦ θεοῦ (supported by א, B, 056, 0142, et al.).  Sharp’s text of 1 Tim 5:21 is found in the TR and Byzantine cursives; NA26/27 drops the κυρίου before Χριστοῦ and is supported by א, A, D*, G, 33, 81, and the majority of Latin witnesses.  Sharp’s reading in 2 Tim 4:1 has an even poorer pedigree: it is supported neither by the TR nor the Byzantine cursives, but is found apparently only in Dabs, a ninth century copy of Claromontanus, and about ten other insignificant witnesses (according to Tischendorf8; the v.l. is not significant enough to warrant a listing in either UBSGNT3 or NA26).  In Jude 4 the variant θεός is found in P, Ψ, and the majority text; it is absent from ∏72, ∏78, א, A, B, C, 0251, 33, 81, 1739, al.  (Without this v.l., the text still fits Sharp’s canon [τὸν μόνον δεσπότην καὶ κύριον ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦν Χριστόν], though lacking an explicit identification of Christ with God.)

In passing, we should note a variant in Gal 2:20 which was apparently overlooked by Sharp: τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ is found in B, D*, F, G, al. (NA26 has τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ, supported by א, A, C, D2, Ψ, the Byzantine minuscules, et al.), a reading which Sharp no doubt would have appealed to had he been aware of it.  Nevertheless, even if original, this reading suffers from the fact that, in the epistles, Χριστός is almost certainly a proper name (see discussion below on Eph 5:5).

152So Sharp, Remarks, 34-35.

153In spite of this, R. Bultmann seems to accept it (Theology of the New Testament [New York: Scribner’s, 1951] 1.129), as does C. Kuehne (“The Greek Article and the Doctrine of Christ’s Deity [Part II],” Journal of  Theology 13 [December 1973] 14-30 28), R. T. France (“Jésus l’unique: les fondements bibliques d’une confession christologique,” Hokhma 17 [1981] 37), et al.  But, significantly, T. F. Middleton rejects it, arguing that (1) κυρίου should not be detached from ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ, since the whole forms a common title in the epistles, thus partaking of the properties of a proper name; and (2) although Greek patristic writers employed the wording of Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 on numerous occasions to affirm the deity of Christ, they have hardly noticed this passage (The Doctrine of the Greek Article Applied to the Criticism and  Illustration of the New Testament, new ed. [rev. by H. J. Rose; London: J. G. F. & J. Rivington, 1841] 379-82).  Cf. also P. H. Matthews, Syntax (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1981) 228-29, for modern linguistic arguments related to gradations of apposition (in 2 Thess 1:12 most exegetes would see “Lord Jesus Christ” as constituting a “close apposition.”  R. Brown (“Does the New Testament Call Jesus God?”, TS 26 [1965]) adds a further argument that “ho theos hemon, ‘our God,’ occurs four times in 1-2 Thessalonians as a title for God the Father; and on this analogy, in the passage at hand ‘our God’ should be distinguished from ‘(the) Lord Jesus Christ’“ (555).

Nevertheless, even if there is quite a bit of doubt as to whether this text fits Sharp’s rule, the single article with both nouns does indicate something.  Leon Morris sums up the implications of this passage well (The First and Second Epistles to the Thessalonians, 212):

It seems likely that ARV is correct in its rendering of the closing words of this chapter.  But, since there is an article before ‘our God’ and none before ‘Lord Jesus Christ,’ it is grammatically possible to understand the expression to mean, ‘our God and Lord, Jesus Christ.’  However, the expression ‘Lord Jesus Christ’ occurs so frequently that it has almost the status of a proper name.  Therefore when ‘Lord’ is used of Jesus it is not necessary for it to have the article.  This being so, it seems likely that we should understand the present passage to refer to both the Father and the Son.  At the same time we should not overlook the fact that Paul does link them very closely indeed.  The fact that there can be this doubt as to whether one or both is meant is itself indicative of the closeness of their connection in the mind of Paul.  He makes no great distinction between them (see further on I Thess. 3:11).

154S.v. Χριστός in BAGR, (2).  Nevertheless, Middleton accepted this text as fitting Sharp’s canon, though principally on the strength of the numerous patristic uses of this phrase (ὁ Χριστὸς καὶ θεός) to affirm the deity of Christ (Doctrine of the Greek Article, 362-65).  We may add further that Χριστός occurs in the first position.  It is possible that the reason proper names do not fit Sharp’s rule is that they are usually in the second position.  Since they do not require an article to be definite, one cannot conclude that the article “carries over” to the proper name in the sense of referential identity.  Indeed, almost all the mixed constructions that I examined, in both the NT and the papyri, had the proper name second.  Ephesians 5:5, then, may well fit Sharp’s rule.  Although almost none of our examples of common noun-proper name mixture yielded referential identity, exact parallels to Eph 5:5 are not easily forthcoming.  We must, therefore, in this essay remain undecided.

155Though a few witnesses in 2 Pet 1:1 read κυρίου instead of θεοῦ (א, Ψ, pauci), in apparent assimilation to 1:11.

156 Unless, of course, θεός is a proper name (see later discussion).

157The issues are not grammatical, but simply add confirmation that Sharp’s syntactical suggestion was so well-founded in the idiom of the language that the theological expression embedded in these texts would most likely be unflinchingly assumed to indicate one person.

158[C. Wordsworth], Six Letters to Granville Sharp, Esq. respecting his Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, in the Greek Text of the New Testament (London: F. and C. Rivington, 1802).

159Six Letters, 7-11.

160Ibid., 12 (Acts 20:28); 63-64 (2 Tim 4:1); 108-114 (Jude 4).

161Ibid., 48.

162Ibid., 39.  The fact that the fathers neglected this text as an explicit affirmation of the deity of Christ comports with our earlier assessment, viz., that “Lord Jesus Christ” is a compound proper name and therefore outside the pale of Sharp’s principle.

163Ibid., 103.

164Ibid., 132.

165Ezra Abbot in fact tries to nullify the masses of patristic evidence with this approach (“On the Construction of Titus II.13,” in The Authorship of the Fourth Gospel and other Critical Essays [Boston: G. H. Ellis, 1888] 145):

That the orthodox Fathers should give to an ambiguous passage the construction which suited their theology and the use of language in their time was almost a matter of course, and furnishes no evidence that their resolution of the ambiguity is the true one.

The cases are so numerous in which the Fathers, under the influence of a dogmatic bias, have done extreme violence to very plain language, that we can attach no weight to their preference in the case of a construction really ambiguous, like the present.

Apart from the question as to whether unorthodox writers also used such texts, what seems to be a significant blow to Abbot’s sweeping statement is the fact that the patristic writers did not invoke the language of 1 Tim 5:21 or 2 Thess 1:12 in their appeals to Christ’s deity—the very passages which have proper names and are thus not valid examples of Sharp’s rule.  Thus, the singular construction which does not involve proper names seems to be a genuine idiom in the language.

166Ibid., 95.  Cf. also 22-23.

167Ibid., 36-38.

168Ibid., 122-24.  Wordsworth lists Clement of Rome, Polycarp, Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, and Origen among the earliest writers.  (The following texts are first listed by Wordworth’s pre-standard nomenclature, sometimes of a particular printed edition, then converted to the current standard form of citation.)  For example, Clement of Rome refers to Christ as ὁ παντεπόπτης θεὸς καὶ δεσπότης τῶν πνευμάτων καὶ κύριος πάσης σαρκός (Epist. i . c. 58=1 Cor. 64.1); Polycarp speaks of him as τοῦ κυρίου καὶ θεοῦ (Philip. c. vi.=Phil. 6.2); Justin Martyr extols the Lord as τοῦ ἡμετέρου ἱερέως καὶ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ (Dialog. cum Tryphone, p. 282, ed. Jebb=Dialogue with Trypho 115.4); Irenaeus addresses him with four epithets: Χριστῷ  ᾿Ιησοῦ τῷ κυρίῳ ἡμῶν καὶ θεῷ καὶ σωτῆρι καὶ βασιλεῖ (L. i. c. x. p. 48=Adversus haereses 1.2.1); Clement of Alexandria refers to Christ as ὁ ἄτυφος θεὸς καὶ κύριος (Paedagog. l. ii. c. iii. p. 161=Paedagog. 2.3.38.1), as well as ὁ σωτὴρ ἡμῶν καὶ θεός (Stromat. l. viii., p. 737=Stromata 7.10.58); Origen often refers to Christ as ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ (e.g., ὁ ἀψευδὴς θεὸς καὶ σωτὴρ, ὁ κύριος ἡμῶν  ᾿Ιησοῦς Χριστός [Selecta in Psalmos, vol. ii, p. 564=Selecta in Psalmos 12.1149]; τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν [Selecta in Psalmos, vol. ii, p. 584=Selecta in Psalmos 12.1185]; and (not listed by Wordsworth) τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν [Fragmenta in Lucam 172.6]; τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν [Fragmenta in Psalmos, Psalm 88:45]).

169What is interesting in this regard is that Eph 5:5 stands up just as well as Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1.  Because of this, it is probably not prudent simply to reject it outright as an explicit affirmation of Christ’s deity.  Nevertheless, since Χριστός is in the equation—a term which we believe is a proper name in the epistles—we are on surer ground if we restrict our discussion to the latter two passages. 

170This same can be said for the papyrological evidence among early Christians, as a scan of the volumes of The Oxyrhynchus Papyri reveals. For example, ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ is applied to Christ in P.Oxy. 3936 (598 CE), 3937 (598), 3938 (601), 3939 (601), 3949 (610), 3954 (611), 3955 (611), 3956 (611), 3958 (614), 3959 (620), 3961 (631/2).  However, all of these references are late.

171The questions of genuineness and therefore date of both Titus and 2 Peter play the leading role in this assertion. 

172C. H. Moehlmann, “The Combination Theos Soter as Explanation of the Primitive Christian Use of Soter as Title and Name of Jesus” (Ph.D. dissertation, University of Michigan, 1920).

173Ibid., 25.

174 Ibid., 39.

175 Cf. Esth 5:1; Ps 61:1, 5 have the construction without the article.  ὁ σωτὴρ καὶ θεός is found in 3 Macc 6:32 and Philo, Legum Allegoriarum 2.56; De Praemiis et Poenis 163.5.  M. Dibelius-H. Conzelmann (The Pastoral Epistles [Philadelphia: Fortress, 1972]), however, list a few references among Diaspora and even Palestinian Jews (100-102).

176The typical Hebrew pattern is to employ the waw in joining two clauses or two anarthrous nouns with an intervening articular noun in a construct chain.  Considerations merely of word order (viz. article-noun-waw-noun) without regard for the overall syntax are deceptive indicators.  Actual article-substantive-waw-substantive constructions in which the waw syntactically joins two personal, singular, common nouns are quite rare in the OT (according to our computer search of the data via AcCordance 1.1 [software programmed by Roy Brown; Vancouver, WA: Gramcord Institute, 1994]).  In Judg 19:24, for example, the homeowner replies to the wicked men at his door, “Here are my virgin daughter and [my guest’s] concubine” (הנה בתי הבתולה ומילגשׁהו).  (Since הבתולה is in apposition to בתי, the waw connects two anarthrous nouns).  The LXX distinguishes the two women with a second article (ἰδοὺ ἡ θυγάτηρ μου ἡ παρθένος καὶ ἡ παλλακὴ αὐτοῦ).  In Prov 17:17 the waw technically joins two parallel clauses (“a friend loves at all times, and a brother is born for adversity”); here the second noun in the construction lacks the article (בכל־עת אהב הרע ואח לצרה יולד).  The LXX renders the two generic nouns without the article and turns the second into a plural (φίλος, ἀδελφοί).  Waw joins two clauses as well in Isa 9:14; Ezek 18:20; and 1 Chron 16:5.  In Deut 22:15       ( ואמה[Qere]הנערה לקח אבי) the waw joins אמהto אבי, not to הנערה.  The construct state is also seen in Gen 44:26 and 2 Chron 24:11.  The waw disjunctive is found in 2 Sam 19:28.  In none of these examples do we have a true article-noun-waw-noun construction.  Yet in all of them the LXX alters the text.

177Prov 24:21 provides a notable exception.  See our discussion of Prov 24:21 above.

178J. H. Moulton, Prolegomena, vol. 1 of A Grammar of New Testament Greek, 3d ed. (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1908) 84.

179Cf. the references in BAGR, s.v. σωτήρ, dating back to the Ptolemaic era.  Cf. also  L. R. Taylor, The Divinity of the Roman Emperor (Middletown, CN: American Philological Association, 1931), who gives a helpful list in her “Appendix III: Inscriptions recording Divine Honors,” 267-83.  Frequently, and from very early on, the inscriptions honor the Roman emperors as θεός, σωτήρ, and εὐεργέτης.  Almost invariably the terms are in a TSKS construction (among the earliest evidence, an inscription at Carthage, 48-47 BCE, honors Caesar as τὸν θεὸν καὶ αὐτοκράτορα καὶ σωτῆρα; one at Ephesus honors him as τὸν . . . θεὸν ἐπιφανῆ καὶ . . . σωτῆρα; Augustus is honored at Thespiae, 30-27 BCE, as το'ν σωτῆρα καὶ εὐεργέτην; and in Myra he is called θεόν, while Marcus Agrippa is honored as τὸν εὐεργέτην καὶ σωτῆρα).  See also P. Wendland, “Σωτήρ: Eine religionsgeschichtliche Untersuchung,” ZNW 5 (1904) 337, 339-40, 342; BAGR, s.v. σωτήρ; W. Foerster, TDNT, 7.1003-1012; Dibelius-Conzelmann, Pastoral Epistles, 74.

180M. J. Harris, “Titus 2:13 and the Deity of Christ” (in Pauline Studies: Essays presented to Professor F. F. Bruce on his 70th  Birthday, ed. D. A. Hagner and M. J. Harris [Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1980]) 266.  Cf. also B. S. Easton, The Pastoral Epistles (New York: Scribner’s, 1947) 94.

181O. Cullmann, The Christology of the New Testament, rev. ed. (Philadelphia: Westminster, 1963) 241.  See also Foerster, TDNT, 7.1010-12, s.v. σωτήρ.

182Cullmann, Christology, 241.

183Cf.  Moehlmann, “Theos Soter,” 22-39; Bultmann, Theology, 1.79.

184We may conjecture that the use of the phrase in emperor-worship was hardly an adequate motivating factor for its use by early Christians, because such an expression butted up against their deeply ingressed monotheism.  Rather, it was only after they came to recognize the divinity of Christ that such a phrase became usable.  This would explain both why σωτήρ is used so infrequently of Christ in the NT, and especially why ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ occurs only twice—and in two late books.

185D’Aragon’s statement is representative: “Tite 2,13, qui traite probablement de la divinité de Jésus, est considéré comme deutéro-paulinien” (J.-L. D’Aragon, “Jésus de Nazareth était-il Dieu?” in ¿Jésus? de l’histoire à la foi [Montréal: Fides, 1974] 200).

186Of course, there are several other reasons for doubting their genuineness, but this is one of the chief.

187G. B. Winer, A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, trans. and rev. W. F. Moulton, 3d ed., rev. (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1882) 162 (italics added).  He adds in a footnote: “the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul’s writings that this apostle cannot have called Christ the great God induced me . . .”

188Besides Winer, one thinks of Kelly and Alford as among those who, because they embraced apostolic authorship, denied an explicitly high Christology.

In passing, we might note that Ignatius’ christological statements involve a tighter apposition (with θεός) than do the statements in Titus and 2 Peter (cf., e.g., Smyrn. 1:1; preface to Ephesians; Eph. 18:2; Trall. 7:1; preface to Romans; Rom. 3:3; Pol. 8:3) or even direct assertion (Rom. 6:3). 

Though the statements in Titus and 2 Peter seem to be explicit affirmations of Christ’s deity, Ignatius’ statements are more blunt.  If a roughly linear development of christological formulation in the early church can be assumed, this would suggest that the terminus ad quem of the Pastorals and 2 Peter could not be later than 110 CE.

189As was mentioned earlier, we believe that Eph 5:5 is the only other christologically significant text in which Sharp’s rule might be valid.  But the main reason we have not altogether denied its validity is that although Χριστός is used in the construction, the Greek patristic writers uniformly see the text as applying to one person.

190In Aids to Faith: A Series of Theological Essays, ed. W. Thomson (London: John Murray, 1861) 462.

191Cf. Luke 20:37; John 20:27; Rom 15:6; 1 Cor 15:24; 2 Cor 1:3; 11:31; Gal 1:4; Eph 1:3; Phil 4:20; 1 Thess 1:3; 3:11, 13; Jas 1:27; 1 Pet 1:3; Rev 1:6.

192Though Matt 24:24 has ψευδοχριστοί.  Yet, Χριστός in the Gospels is not yet a proper name, as it is in the epistles.  See in particular B. Weiss, “Der Gebrauch des Artikels bei den Gottesnamen,” TSK 84 (1911) 319-92, 503-38, for his arguments that the plural of θεός in the NT makes it less than a proper name. 

193See R. W. Funk, “The Syntax of the Greek Article: Its Importance for Critical Pauline Problems” (Ph.D. dissertation, Vanderbilt University, 1953) 46.

194E. Stauffer, TDNT, 3.92.  In a footnote Stauffer points out that “exceptions like Jn. 8:54 or R. 8:33 are for syntactical reasons.”  Funk finds that in the eight authentic Pauline letters 98 of the 112 uses of θεός in the nominative are arthrous (“Syntax of the Greek Article,” 154), and the remainder are capable of an explanation which renders the term less than a proper name.

195E.g., Apollonius’ canon implies that instances of nomen rectum need no article; nouns in prepositional phrases are often anarthrous, though usually definite.  Again, see Funk, idem, 154-67, as well as Weiss’ article for a detailed discussion.

196 “Der Gebrauch des Artikels bei den Gottesnamen,” 321.

197Ibid.  N. T. Wright has recently argued a similar point, though from the vantage point of NT theology.  In his provocative The New Testament and the People of God (Minneapolis: Fortress, 1992) he gives an apologetic for “god” (xiv-xv):

. . . I have frequently used ‘god’ instead of ‘God’.  This is not a printer’s error, nor is it a deliberate irreverence; rather the opposite, in fact.  The modern usage, without the article and with a capital, seems to me actually dangerous.  This usage, which sometimes amounts to regarding ‘God’ as the proper name of the Deity, rather than essentially a common noun, implies that all users of the word are monotheists and, within that, that all monotheists believe in the same god.  Both these propositions seem to me self-evidently untrue.

. . . The early Christians used the phrase ‘the god’ (ho theos) of this god, and this was (I believe) somewhat polemical, making an essentially Jewish-monotheistic point over against polytheism.

M. Hengel also argues for θεός as a common noun (Judaism and Hellenism: Studies in their Encounter in Palestine during the Early Hellenistic Period [Philadelphia: Fortress, 1974]   1.262-67.  Cf. also H. Rosén, Early Greek Grammar and Thought in Heraclitus: The Emergence of the Article (Jerusalem: Israel Academy of Sciences and Humanities, 1988) 58-60, who suggests that the occurrence of the arthrous singular θεός in Heraclitus (it never occurs as an arthrous plural) is certainly no argument for monotheism in the fifth century BCE.

198Weiss, “Der Gebrauch des Artikels bei den Gottesnamen,” 320-21.  He cites Winer as one of the grammarians who so misunderstands the force of θεός.  Cf. also Funk (“Syntax of the Greek Article,” 144-67) who, in fact, takes Weiss’ approach further, noting the regularity of the use of the article with θεός in Paul.

Two other comments should be made about θεός before moving on. First, as we noted in the papyri, quasi-proper names fit Sharp’s rule; only fully proper names did not.  Ellicott’s suggestion that quasi-proper names (and if θεός be considered such, especially is this true with this term!) do not fit the rule is unsupported by any evidence I have yet come across.  Secondly, the only real instance in which a proper name becomes a factor in Sharp’s construction is when it stands second in order, for the whole argument about proper names not fitting the rule rests on the basis of it being definite without the article (cf. 1 Tim 4:1; 2 Thess 1:12).  Hence, if a proper name is the second noun in the TSKS construction it would naturally lack the article without implying identity with the first noun’s referent.  Incidentally, some have understood the weight of this point and have consequently argued that σωτήρ in Titus 2:13 is a proper name.  Such a view is easy to refute; nothing more needs to be said than what Harris has pointed out (“Titus 2:13 and the Deity of Christ,” 268):

. . . to judge from the NT use of σωτήρ, evidence is wanting that in the first century σωτήρ was a proper name as well as a title of Jesus.  Apart from Titus 2:13, the word is used only fifteen times in reference to Jesus.  In nine of these cases it is a title accompanying proper names (such as ᾿Ιησοῦς Χριστός); in the remaining six cases it is used simply as a descriptive title.  Nor is there proof that as a quasi-technical word σωτήρ “speedily became anarthrous.”  In fact, in the Pastorals σωτήρ is articular seven times but anarthrous only twice (excluding Titus 2:13). Only if it could be established that σωτὴρ (ἡμῶν) ᾿Ιησοῦς Χριστός was an early credal formula comparable to κύριος  ᾿Ιησοῦς Χριστός could one argue that σωτήρ was anarthrous in Titus 2:13 because of its widespread technical use.

199P. S. Berge, “‘Our Great God and Savior’: A Study of Soter as a Christological Title in Titus 2:11-14” (Ph.D. dissertation, Union Theological Seminary, 1973) 48.

200But cf. Parry, Scott, Fee, et al.  The view was first proposed by F. J. A. Hort, The Epistle of St James: The Greek Text with Introduction, Commentary as far as Chapter IV, Verse 7, and Additional Notes (London: Macmillan, 1909) 47, 103-104, regarding Jas 2:1. 

201For more comprehensive treatments on the issue of δόξα, see G. W. Knight, The Pastoral Epistles: A Commentary on the Greek Text (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans/Carlisle: Paternoster, 1992) 322-26; Harris, “Titus 2:13 and the Deity of Christ,” 266.

202In particular, just three verses earlier (Titus 2:10).  Cf. also 1 Tim 1:1; 2:3; Titus 1:3; 3:4 (similarly, 1 Tim 4:10).

203In this respect, the first and second views listed above share this point in common.  The issue between them is whether Christ is called merely “Savior,” or “God and Savior.”  The subtletly of the δόξα view is evident by the fact that, as far as I am aware, it was unknown until Hort advanced it.

204Note 2 Tim 1:10; Titus 3:6 for references to Christ.  In Titus 1:3 σωτήρ refers to the Father; in 1:4, to Christ.

205E. Stauffer, θεός, TDNT, 3.105, 106.

206A. T. Robertson, “The Greek Article and the Deity of Christ,” The Expositor, 8th Series, vol. 21 (1921) 185.

207Cf. John 20:17; 2 Cor 1:3; 1 Thess 3:2; 1 Tim 6:15; Heb 12:2; Rev 1:9.

208Martyrdom of Polycarp, ch. 22.

209Paedagogus 3.12.101.

210Doctrine of the Greek Article, 67-69.  Kuehne (“Christ’s Deity [Part IV],” 18-19), and Blum (“Studies in Problem Areas,” 32-34) use similar reasoning.

211This, of course, would not inherently have to be the case.

212Admittedly, the NT in places seems a bit fuzzy about such distinctions (cf. Acts 20:28; 2 Cor 3:17; 1 Thess 3:11, etc.).

213Kyrios Christos, 327.

214Ibid., 328-29. 

215Ibid., 329.  For other early examples of such confusion, see R. A. Norris, Jr., The Christological Controversy (Philadelphia: Fortress, 1980) 4, 5, 7, 11, 13-14, etc.

On the other hand, some writers see a highly developed Christology in the second century not too far removed from Nicea or Chalcedon (e.g., J. Lebreton, “La théologie de la trinité d’après saint Ignace d’Antioche,” Recherches de science religieuse 15 (1925) 97-126, 393-419).  Admittedly, the patristic writers do make distinctions between the Father and Son, but they are not consistent.  Our point is not that distinctions are not made, just that they are not consistently made.

216For illustrations of adherence to Sharp’s canon (if we may speak anachronistically), note the following: τὸν πατέρα καὶ κτίστην (1 Clem 19.2); ὁ νωθρὸς καὶ παρειμένος (1 Clem 34.1); τὸν προστάτην καὶ βοηθόν (1 Clem 36.1); τὸν ἀποκτείνοντα καὶ ζῆν ποιοῦντα (1 Clem 59.3); ὁ λέγων καὶ ἀκούων (2 Clem 16.2); τὸν σωτῆρα καὶ ἀρχηγόν (2 Clem 20.5); τῷ υἱῷ ἀνθρώπου καὶ θεοῦ (Ignatius, Eph 20.2).

217By this we are not implying that Middleton directly responded to the challenge posed by Winstanley.  In keeping with his somewhat smug and irascible character, Middleton refused to acknowledge any of his adversaries in this issue by name.  Cf. the brief biographical note on Middleton in The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, 2d ed., rev. (ed. by F. L. Cross and E. A. Livingstone; New York: Oxford University Press, 1983). 

218Based on the software database of the Thesaurus Linguae Graecae D CD ROM (Los Altos, CA: Packard Humanities Institute, 1993), which encompasses most of the Greek literature from Homer to 1453 CE, though excluding much of the papyri and patristics.

Related Topics: Grammar, Text & Translation

Some Initial Reflections on Slavery in the New Testament

Related Media

1. Slavery in the first century was quite different from slavery in early American history. For one thing, Roman slaves were either taken as the spoils of war or were such because they sold themselves into slavery (known as "bond-servant"). They were often well-educated (cf. Gal 3:24 in which the "tutor" or better "disciplinarian" or "guide" of the children was usually a slave). The normal word for "slave" in the New Testament is the term dou'lo", a term that in earlier centuries usually referred to one who sold himself into slavery; later on, it was used especially of those who became slaves as the spoils of war.

2. Although the masters had absolute rights over their slaves, they generally showed them respect, very unlike the South in the days of Lincoln. They often treated them with human dignity and, although they could beat them, such does not seem to be as regular a practice as it was in America. Slaves could marry, accumulate wealth, purchase their own freedom, run a business, etc. Cicero noted that a slave could usually be set free within seven years; in any case, under Roman law a slave would normally be set free by age 30. All this can be overstated, however. The revolt led by Spartacus in 73 BC caused Rome to treat slaves from the western regions more harshly (very similar to how black slaves were treated). Eastern slaves, however, enjoyed much greater freedom.

3. As much as two thirds of the Roman empire were slaves (before the first century it was as high as 90%). By the first century AD an increasingly large number of slaves were being freed—so much so that Caesar had to write up laws that governed the procedure! Quite different from the Old South where only South Carolina had more slaves than freemen (so far as I know).

One of the implications of this has to do with the NT authors' strategy on slavery: Should Paul tell the slaves to rebel? Could he write an emancipation proclamation? When we think through this issue, it is plain that the NT writers simply could not outright condemn slavery (the disastrous results of Spartacus' rebellion [in spite of the Hollywood portrayal] would have been etched in their minds). Further, to whom would such a directive be pointed? To the pagan masters? They do not place themselves under God's law and are not a part of his kingdom program. Paul's exhortations to them would be meaningless. To the slaves? They are powerless to bring about their own freedom apart from overt actions (e.g., rebellion, running away). Further, such actions hardly comported with the gospel: change is to take place from the inside out, not from imposition on social structures. (The one exception to this had to do with ultimate allegiance and worship: civil disobedience was always encouraged when it came to having to choose between Christ and Caesar.)

4. There are passages in Paul that speak to the issue of slavery, and they at least plant the seeds of freedom as concomitant with the gospel. The entire letter to Philemon addresses the issue of Onesimus' freedom. Paul urges Philemon to free him because Onesimus had become useful to Paul in ministry. Paul does not command Philemon; he urges. He even says that he could command him, as his father in the faith, but he wants Philemon to make the decision from his heart. Herein lies the point at stake: Is the NT about social change first or is it about change of the heart? As much as I believe that Christians should become involved in several aspects of society (we are, after all, "the salt of the world"), when we exchange the gospel for a merely social agenda we contaminate our mission. I believe there are social implications of the gospel that are quite extensive, but let us never forget that our primary task in relation to the world is not to change political structures, but to offer forgiveness of sin in the name of Jesus Christ.

In Eph 6:5-9 Paul reminds masters of their responsibility to treat their slaves with respect, noting that they too have a Master in heaven.

5. Now, with this background in mind, let's look briefly at a couple of passages: Col 3:22-25 and 1 Cor 7:17-24. The first text only gives instructions to those who are slaves to perform their duties well. I think that if Paul lived in Dixie 150 years ago, his advice to Christian slaves would be the same. His advice to Christian masters would be quite different: he would ask them to treat their slaves with dignity and respect and hope that they would come to recognize the incompatibility of slavery with the gospel. He could certainly write on this topic, too. But Paul would not tell the slaves to rebel or run away. He always sought change from the inside.

As for 1 Cor 7:17-24: In v. 21 the NASB reads: "Were you called while a slave? Do not worry about it; but if you are able also to become free, rather do that." The NIV and REB are similar. The NRSV takes this verse to mean "Were you a slave when called? Do not be concerned about it. Even if you can gain your freedom, make use of your present condition now more than ever." The last two words in Greek are in dispute and scholars are divided on them. That's because the adverb, ma'llon, can mean "rather" or "all the more." Is Paul saying that they should not seek their freedom even if they can, or is he saying that by all means take it if it comes to them? Difficult to tell, though I favor the view that the slaves were to take their freedom if it were offered to them. However, 1 Cor 7 is governed by v. 26—"the present necessity" or the "present crisis." Whatever that was, it seemed to have put a hold on normal life. After all, in this chapter it looks as though Paul is telling people that it's best not to get married. He has to explicitly refute that this is his normal teaching a few years later (1 Tim 4:1-3; 5:14). The crisis in the Corinthian church may have been one of persecution or a financial issue (for a famine had swept the Mediterranean region ten years earlier). In such unstable times, it's usually best to lie low until the crisis is past.

Finally, on 1 Cor 7, Paul does make one significant pronouncement: In v. 23 he says, "You were bought with a price; do not become slaves of men." Here we clearly see his attitude toward slavery and the seeds of social freedom embedded in his words. The gospel and slavery are incompatible because someone else has already purchased us.

Related Topics: Cultural Issues

The Synoptic Problem and Inspiration: A Response

Related Media

Recently, a pastor wrote to Dallas Seminary, expressing some concern over my views on the literary interrelationship of the synoptic gospels. This letter was prompted no doubt by a particularly vicious and ill-informed attack on my views written by another man who posted his views on his website and circulated it to thousands of people electronically. Below is my response.

Dear Pastor _______,

In my essay on the synoptic problem I wrote the following:

The remarkable verbal agreement between the gospels suggests some kind of interdependence. It is popular today among laymen to think in terms of independence—and to suggest either that the writers simply recorded what happened and therefore agree, or that they were guided by the Holy Spirit into writing the same things. This explanation falls short on several fronts.

You were concerned about my views and seemed to wonder whether they really were in harmony with a high view of the Bible. I am not sure exactly what was behind the question, but possibly you may think that my view of the Bible is that it is not inspired. Nothing could be further from the truth. In another essay that is also posted on the netbible.org website I wrote:

The doctrine of election is analogous to that of inspiration. God has inspired the very words of scripture (2 Tim 3:16), yet his modus operandi was not verbal dictation. Isaiah was the Shakespeare of his day; Amos was the Mark Twain. Both had widely divergent vocabularies and styles of writing, yet what each wrote was inspired by God. Luke’s style of writing and Greek syntax is quite different from John’s, yet both penned the Word of God. We read in 2 Peter 1:20-21 that no prophet originated his own prophecies, but was borne along by the Holy Spirit: “1:20 Above all, you do well if you recognize this: no prophecy of Scripture ever comes about by the prophet's own imagination, 1:21 for no prophecy was ever borne of human impulse; rather, men carried along by the Holy Spirit spoke from God” (NET Bible).

Thus, we are presented with a mystery: Each biblical writer wrote the very words of God, yet each exercised his own personality and will in the process. The message originated with God, yet the process involved human volition. The miracle of inspiration, as Lewis Sperry Chafer long ago noted, is that God did not violate anyone’s personality, yet what was written was exactly what he wanted to say.

In other words, my view is that although the gospel writers used sources, this does not mean that their writings were not inspired. The historic position of the Protestant faith has always held to this view of inspiration. Calvin, Hodge, Chafer, Walvoord, Erickson, etc., all hold that the use of sources in the process of writing scripture is not a denial of inspiration. It is just a denial of mechanical dictation, which is what I was getting at in the essay on the synoptic problem.

You should know, by the way, how important is the doctrine of inspiration to me: I spent over 1200 hours on my master’s thesis (completed in 1979) on “The Relation of Adjective to Noun in Anarthrous Constructions in the New Testament.” Ultimately, my objective was to determine what the relation of γραφή to θεόπνευστος was in 2 Tim 3.16. I had detected a weakness from the grammatical side of things in the argument that θεόπνευστος was a predicate adjective (“all/every scripture is inspired”): no New Testament grammar produced any examples that this could be the case in wholly anarthrous constructions! The only actual examples in anarthrous constructions found in the grammars were of an attributive relation (“all inspired scripture…”). If the attributive view were correct, it might mean that not all scripture was verbally inspired. I felt that the grammatical argument for the predicate adjective needed to be shored up, so I began to research the construction. I examined the entire NT, as well as 5000 lines of Greek outside of the NT. I also looked at every πᾶς + noun + adjective construction in the LXX. This was before computer search tools, so all of this had to be done manually. My conclusion? I found overwhelming evidence that θεόπνευστος was indeed a predicate adjective. So much evidence, in fact, that the attributive translation could be viewed as illegitimate. My thesis was published in 1984 in Novum Testamentum, a Dutch journal of scholarly repute. Even though the journal is not at all evangelical, the editors did not change one word of what I wrote. Not one word. At the very beginning of the article I noted that the burden of the article was to shed some light on 2 Tim 3.16 so as to help resolve disputes among American evangelicals—they even left this intact! Altogether I found about 400 passages in which the adjective in such constructions could be predicate, and those that followed the exact contours of 2 Tim 3.16 were always predicate. I published more on this point in my book, Greek Grammar beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1996) 309-14. My conclusion on 2 Tim 3.16 was that the adjective θεόπνευστος was indeed predicate and that the verse should be translated “every scripture is inspired and profitable…” Now, this grammar was written five years after I first wrote the essay on the synoptic problem. So, you can see, my theology has not changed on this point.

Back to synoptic literary interdependence: Luke tells us explicitly that he used sources (Luke 1.1-4). What is interesting here is that he praises the “eyewitnesses and servants of the word” (v 2) as among his more reliable sources. The word for servants here is ὑπηρέτης, a word that Luke uses only five other times in Luke-Acts. Three uses are technical, referring to some kind of an official. But two are of a different sort. One is part of the risen Lord’s message to Saul when Saul was on the road to Damascus (Acts 26.16). And one refers to John Mark as the servant of Paul and Barnabas (Acts 13.5). Some scholars suggest that both of these non-technical references may well be a hint as to Luke’s sources. That is, that Mark and Paul were among Luke’s sources for the gospel and Acts, respectively. I think that that view is probably correct. In Acts, for example, the “we” sections don’t begin until chapter 16, when Luke joined up with Paul’s entourage. At that point, Luke becomes an eyewitness to the events and needs no other sources. But until then, he had to rely on information supplied him by others. Paul would have logically been one of those sources. And Mark would naturally have been one of the sources that Luke used in writing his gospel. Since Mark is not mentioned until late (Acts 13), it is even likely that Luke came across his gospel after he had already written a draft of his own. If that is the case, as G. B. Caird notes in his little commentary on Luke, then Luke’s use of Mark is extremely conservative, giving a stamp of approval on what Mark wrote. I agree with that assessment. Luke also may have interviewed Mary, the mother of Jesus. Twice we are told in Luke 2 that Mary “treasured all these things in her heart” (Luke 2.19, 51). That alone might hint that Luke interviewed Mary to find out about Jesus. But there’s more: the Greek of the first two chapters of Luke is far more Semitic than the rest of the gospel. Although much of it can be attributed to a conscious imitation of the LXX, not all of it can. I think that Luke went to the very best sources he could—including the mother of our Lord!—to get his facts straight. And the Holy Spirit sovereignly protected the good doctor from error as he wrote down his message. The real miracle of inspiration is that the writers were usually unaware of the Spirit’s guidance of them as they penned their words. But when the dust settled, what they wrote was the Word of God.

Frankly, at issue here is a huge matter. Not only should we say that the Spirit of God was more interested in holy men than in stenographers, but the interrelationship of the incarnation and scripture hangs in the balance of how we address inspiration in the gospels. I firmly believe that the incarnation of Christ absolutely demands of me that I do careful historical investigation. Our religion is the only one in the world that invites the reader to examine the data in terms of time-space history. Jesus Christ became a man in history. And the record of his words and deeds in the gospels speaks of places, names, dates, etc.—in short, all the things that a true historian includes to make his writings subject to verification. Even the resurrection of Christ is subject to historical verification. If the risen Lord could walk through walls, then why was the stone rolled away? It wasn’t to let Jesus out, but to let the disciples in—so that they could verify that he was truly no longer there. And if it had been God’s modus operandi to have us embrace a blind faith, then Jesus would never have appeared to the disciples after his resurrection; they would simply have been told to trust the angels. Not only do the gospels give evidence otherwise, but when Paul gets into a heated debate with the Corinthians about the resurrection he appeals to historical proof. In 1 Cor 15.5-6 he appeals to over 500 eyewitnesses of the resurrection as proof that it really occurred. And he adds “most of them are still alive, though some have fallen asleep.” This point is intended to undergird his argument that the resurrection of Christ must be subject to historical verification, and that it comes out with flying colors!

In short, what I am saying is two things: (1) Literary interdependence is not in any way a denial of inspiration; it is only a denial of mechanical dictation as the mode of inspiration. The nature of the Bible is such that it is both the Word of God and the words of men. To deny the first is analogous to Arianism; to deny the second is analogous to Docetism. Both are Christological heresies. And if the analogy between the incarnate Word (Christ) and the living Word (Bible) is one intended by scripture, then we could say with equal force that to deny either the divine inspiration or the full human involvement in the making of the Bible is heretical. (2) The incarnation invites and even demands that we look at the Bible with the best of our historical-critical tools. If we do not, then our bibliology is really no different than the Muslims’ view of the Quran. I am persuaded that the closer we look, the better the Bible looks. Or, as an old British scholar of yesteryear said, “We treat the Bible like any other book to show that it is not like any other book.”

Related Topics: Gospels, Inspiration

The Synoptic Problem

Related Media

Any serious discussion of the Synoptic Gospels must, sooner or later, involve a discussion of the literary interrelationships among Matthew, Mark, and Luke. This is essential in order to see how an author used his sources (both for reliability’s sake as well as for redactional criticism), as well as when he wrote.

Robert H. Stein’s The Synoptic Problem: An Introduction1 summarizes well the issues involved in the synoptic problem—as well as its probable solution. For the most part, our discussion will follow his outline.2

A. The Literary Interdependence of the Synoptic Gospels

It is quite impossible to hold that the three synoptic gospels were completely independent from each other. In the least, they had to have shared a common oral tradition. But the vast bulk of NT scholars today would argue for much more than that.3 There are four crucial arguments which virtually prove literary interdependence.

1. Agreement in Wording

The remarkable verbal agreement between the gospels suggests some kind of interdependence. It is popular today among laymen to think in terms of independence—and to suggest either that the writers simply recorded what happened and therefore agree, or that they were guided by the Holy Spirit into writing the same things. This explanation falls short on several fronts.

a. Historical Naiveté

This approach is historically naive for the following reasons.

First, it cannot explain the differences among the writers—unless it is assumed that verbal differences indicate different events. In that case, one would have to say that Jesus was tempted by the devil twice, that the Lord’s Supper was offered twice, and that Peter denied the Lord six to nine times! In fact, one might have to say that Christ was raised from the dead more than once if this were pressed!

Second, if Jesus spoke and taught in Aramaic (at least sometimes, if not usually), then why are these verbal agreements preserved for us in Greek? It is doubtful that each writer would have translated Jesus’ sayings in exactly the same way so often.

Third, even if Jesus spoke in Greek exclusively, how is it that not only his words but his deeds are recorded in verbal identity? There is a material difference between remembering the verbiage of what one heard and recording what one saw in identical verbiage.

Fourth, when one compares the synoptic materials with John’s Gospel, why are there so few verbal similarities? On an independent hypothesis, either John or the synoptics are wrong, or else John does not record the same events at all in the life of Jesus.

b. Naiveté Regarding Inspiration

This approach is also naive regarding the role of the Spirit in inspiring the authors of the gospels.

First, if identical verbiage is to be attributed to Spirit-inspiration, to what should verbal dissonance be attributed?

Second, since John’s Gospel is so dissimilar (92% unique), does this imply that he was not inspired by the Spirit in the writing of his gospel?

In sum, it is quite impossible—and ultimately destructive of the faith—to maintain that there is total independence among the gospel writers.

2. Agreement in Order

Although there is a great deal of disagreement in the order of the pericopae among the synoptic gospels, there is an even greater amount of agreement. If one argues that the order is strictly chronological, there are four pieces of data which overrule this. First, there is occasional disagreement in the order. For example, many of Matthew’s parables in chapter 13 are found in Luke 8 or Luke 13. The scribe who approached Jesus about the great commandment is placed in the Passion Week in Matthew and Mark, and vaguely arranged elsewhere in Luke. Second, it is evident that quite a bit of material is grouped topically in the gospels—e.g., after the Sermon on the Mount in Matthew come several miracles by Jesus. Indeed, “Matthew has furthermore arranged his entire Gospel so that collections of narratives alternate with collections of sayings.”4 Third, the early patristic writers (e.g., Papias) recognized that the gospel writers did not follow a strict chronological arrangement. Fourth, there is a studied reserve in the gospels from pinpointing the dates of the various incidents. Introductory comments such as, “immediately,” “after this,” “on another occasion,” “one day,” etc. are the norm. In other words, there seems to be no intent on the part of the evangelists to present a strict chronological sequence of events.

3. Agreement in Parenthetical Material

“One of the most persuasive arguments for the literary interdependence of the synoptic Gospels is the presence of identical parenthetical material, for it is highly unlikely that two or three writers would by coincidence insert into their accounts exactly the same editorial comment at exactly the same place.”5 One of the most striking of these demonstrates, beyond the shadow of a doubt, the use of written documents: “When you see the desolating sacrilege . . . (let the reader understand) . . . ” (Matt 24:15/Mark 13:14). It is obvious that this editorial comment could not be due to a common oral heritage, for it does not say, “let the hearer understand.” Cf. also Matt 9:6/Mark 2:10/Luke 5:24; Matt 27:18/Mark 15:10.

4. Luke’s Preface

Luke begins his gospel in a manner similar to ancient historians: “Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile a narrative . . . it seemed good to me also . . . to write an orderly account for you . . . .” In the least this implies two things: (1) Luke was aware of written (and oral) sources based on eyewitness accounts; (2) Luke used some of these sources in the composition of his gospel.

5. Conclusion

Stein has summarized ably what one should conclude from these four areas of investigation:

We shall see later that before the Gospels were written there did exist a period in which the gospel materials were passed on orally, and it is clear that this oral tradition influenced not only the first of our synoptic Gospels but the subsequent ones as well. As an explanation for the general agreement between Matthew-Mark-Luke, however, such an explanation is quite inadequate. There are several reasons for this. For one the exactness of the wording between the synoptic Gospels is better explained by the use of written sources than oral ones. Second, the parenthetical comments that these Gospels have in common are hardly explainable by means of oral tradition. This is especially true of Matthew 24:15 and Mark 13:14, which addresses the readers of these works! Third and most important, the extensive agreement in the memorization of the gospel traditions by both missionary preachers and laypeople is conceded by all, it is most doubtful that this involved the memorization of a whole gospel account in a specific order. Memorizing individual pericopes, parables, and sayings, and even small collections of such material, is one thing, but memorizing a whole Gospel of such material is something else. The large extensive agreement in order between the synoptic Gospels is best explained by the use of a common literary source. Finally, as has already been pointed out, whereas Luke 1:2 does refer to an oral period in which the gospel materials were transmitted, Luke explicitly mentions his own investigation of written sources.6

B. The Priority of Mark

There are three types of theories which have arisen to explain the literary relationships among the synoptic gospels. First, Schleiermacher in 1817 held that the apostles had written down brief memorabilia which were later collected and arranged according to their particular type of genre. The problem with this view is that it fails to explain the overall arrangement of the synoptic gospels.

Second, G. E. Lessing (1776) and J. G. Eichhorn (1796) argued for an Ur-Gospel, written in Aramaic, which ultimately stood behind the synoptic gospels. The various synoptic writers then used different revisions/ translations of this Ur-Gospel. The main problem with this theory is that it looks no different than an Ur-Mark which, in turn, looks no different than Mark. Thus, rather than postulating any kind of Ur-Gospel, a simpler theory which accounted for the data just as well was that Mark stood behind Luke and Matthew.

Third, the theory of interdependence (sometimes known as utilization) has been suggested. In other words, one or more synoptic gospel used one or more synoptic gospel. Altogether there are eighteen possible permutations of this theory,7 though three have presented themselves as the most plausible: (1) the Augustinian hypothesis: Matthew wrote first and was utilized by Mark whose gospel was used by Luke; (2) the Griesbach hypothesis (suggested by J. J. Griesbach in 1776): Matthew wrote first and was used by Luke, both of whom were used by Mark; and (3) the Holtzmann/Streeter hypothesis (suggested by H. J. Holtzmann in 1863, and refined [and complicated!] by B. H. Streeter in 1924): Mark wrote first and was used independently by Matthew and Luke.8

The majority of NT scholars hold to Markan priority (either the two-source hypothesis of Holtzmann or the four-source hypothesis of Streeter). This is the view adopted in this paper as well.9 Stein puts forth eight categories of reasons why Mark ought to be considered the first gospel. Though not all of his arguments are of equal weight, both the cumulative evidence and several specific arguments are quite persuasive.

1. Mark’s Shortness: The Argument from Length

Mark’s brevity can be measured in terms of verses or words:

MATTHEW

MARK

LUKE

VERSES

1068

661

1149

WORDS

18,293

11,025

19,376

When one compares the synoptic parallels, some startling results are noticed. Of Mark’s 11,025 words, only 132 have no parallel in either Matthew or Luke. Percentage-wise, 97% of Mark’s Gospel is duplicated in Matthew; and 88% is found in Luke. On the other hand, less than 60% of Matthew is duplicated in Mark, and only 47% of Luke is found in Mark.10

What is to account for the almost total absorption of Mark into Matthew and Luke? The Griesbach hypothesis11 suggests that Mark was the last gospel written and that the author used Matthew and Luke. But if so, why did he omit so much material? What Mark omits from his gospel cannot be considered insignificant: the birth of Jesus, the birth of John the Baptist, the Sermon on the Mount, the Lord’s Prayer, the resurrection appearances by Jesus,12 much teaching material, etc. Further, he has abbreviated accounts of the Lord’s temptation and baptism. There are two reasons13 usually given as to why Mark would omit so much material: (1) Mark wanted to provide an abridged gospel for use in the churches; (2) Mark only wanted to record material that was found in both Matthew and Luke, perhaps on the analogy of Deut 17:6-7/19:15 (the voice of at least two witnesses confirmed a truth). Both of these reasons seem inadequate however, for the following reasons.

(1) Mark’s Gospel is not really an abridgment: “whereas Mark is considerably shorter in total length than Matthew and Luke, when we compare the individual pericopes that they have in common, time and time again we find that Mark is the longest!”14 In other words, Mark’s Gospel, where it has parallels with Matthew and Luke, is not an abridgment, but an expansion. Not only this, but the very material he omits would have served a good purpose in his gospel. For example, Mark attempts to emphasize Jesus’ role as teacher (cf. 2:13; 4:1-2; 6:2; 8:31; 12:35, 38, etc.), yet he omits much of what he actually taught. The best explanation of this would seem to be that he was unacquainted with some of these sayings of Jesus, rather than that he intentionally omitted so much—in particular, the Sermon on the Mount. “An abridged work becomes shorter by both eliminating various materials and abbreviating the accounts retained.”15 But the material which Mark eliminates is quite inexplicable on the assumption of Markan posteriority; and the accounts which he retains are almost always longer than either Luke’s or Matthew’s.

(2) It is fallacious to argue that Mark only wanted to record material found in both Matthew and Luke. Yet, W. R. Farmer comes close to this view when he writes that Mark’s Gospel was created as:

a new Gospel out of existing Gospels on an “exclusive” principle. . . . [It was written for liturgical purposes as] a new Gospel [composed] largely out of existing Gospels concentrating on those materials where their texts bore concurrent testimony to the same Gospel tradition. The Gospel of Mark to a considerable extent could be understood as just such a work . . . 16

There is a threefold problem with this. First, it is rather doubtful that Mark intended to write his gospel by way of confirming what was found in both Matthew and Luke. There is little evidence in his gospel that this was an important motif. Rather, if any gospel writer employed this motif, it was Matthew not Mark.17

Second, there is much material—and very rich material—found in both Matthew and Luke that is absent in Mark. In particular, the birth narrative, Sermon on the Mount, Lord’s Prayer, and resurrection appearances. If Mark only produced material found in both Matthew and Luke, why did he omit such important passages which are attested by these other two gospels?

Third, it is quite an overstatement to say that Mark only produced material found in the other two: much of his gospel includes pericopes which are found in only one other gospel.

For examples of exclusively Mark-Luke parallels, note the following: the healing of the demoniac in the synagogue (Mark 1:23-28/Luke 4:33-37); the widow’s mite (Mark 12:41-44/Luke 21:1-4).

For examples of exclusively Mark-Matthew parallels, note the following: the offending eye/hand (Matt. 5:29-30 and 18:8-9/Mark 9:43-47); the details about the death of John the Baptist (Matt. 14:3-12/Mark 6:17-29); Jesus walking on the water (Matt 14:22-33/Mark 6:45-52); Isaiah’s prophecy about a hypocritical people and Jesus’ application (Matt 15:1-20/Mark 7:1-23); the Syrophoenicean woman pericope (Matt 15:21-28/Mark 7:24-30); the healing of the deaf-mute (Matt 15:29-31/Mark 7:31-37); the feeding of the four thousand (Matt 15:32-39/Mark 8:1-10); Elijah’s coming (Matt 17:10-13/Mark 9:11-13); the withering of the fig tree (Matt 21:20-22/Mark 11:20-26); the soldiers’ mockery of Jesus before Pilate (Matt 27:28-31/Mark 15:17-20).

What these double-gospel parallels reveal is two things: (1) Mark did not follow the principle of exclusivity, for he includes quite a bit of material which is found only in one other gospel; (2) Mark parallels Matthew far more often than he does Luke (only two pericopes in Mark-Luke vs. ten in Mark-Matthew), negating Farmer’s claim that where Mark only followed one gospel he did so in a balanced way, preferring neither Matthew nor Luke.18

Against a theory of Matthean priority stands the supposition that Luke and Matthew used additional source(s). If so, then the reason they shortened the pericopes they shared with Mark was so that they might include other materials within the length of their scrolls.19

In sum, we could add the now famous statement of G. M. Styler: “given Mk, it is easy to see why Matt. was written; given Matt., it is hard to see why Mk was needed.”20

2. Mark’s Poorer Writing Style: The Argument from Grammar21

Stein lists three broad categories of Mark’s poorer stylistic abilities: (1) colloquialisms and incorrect grammar, (2) Aramaic expressions, and (3) redundancies. The first and second arguments are significant for pericopes which Mark shares with either Matthew or Luke; the third is valuable for considering material omitted in Mark.

a. Colloquialisms and Incorrect Grammar22

For example, Mark uses κράβαττον in 2:4, a slang word for “mattress” which was banned by such literary writers of the period as Phrynichus and Moeris. The parallels in Matthew and Luke change the word to some form from the root κλιν- (κλίνη, κλινίδιος), which was an acceptable literary term. This argument gains strength when it is seen that neither Matthew nor Luke ever uses κράβαττον23 (though Mark on three occasions does use the correct word).

Secondly, it is characteristic of Mark to use φέρω in the sense of “lead,” while, strictly speaking, ἄγω means “lead,” and φέρω means “bring, carry.” Cf. Mark 7:32 and 8:22.

Sir John C. Hawkins added numerous other grammatical anomalies in Mark including instances of anacoluthon and instances of asyndeton which were corrected or deleted in Matthew or Luke.24

b. Aramaic Expressions

Many have seen Aramaisms in Mark in the very warp and woof of his grammar; in addition to these are seven clear Aramaic expressions in Mark. For example, in Mark 3:17 James and John are called “Boanerges,” an expression not found in the parallels in either Matthew or Luke. Mark speaks of the “Corban” (Mark 7:11), an expression deleted in Matthew’s parallel. Cf. also Mark 7:34/Matt 15:30; etc. “In these seven illustrations the Aramaic expression is missing in all five parallel accounts in Luke and in at least five of the seven parallel accounts in Matthew. . . . for Mark to have added into his Gospel all these Aramaisms, which were not in his source(s), is unexplainable.”25

c. Redundancy

Mark has redundant expressions on several occasions where both Matthew and Luke omit the unnecessary phrases. For example, in Matt 27:35 we read that the soldiers “divided his garments among them by casting lots”; Luke 23:34 parallels this with “they cast lots to divide his garments”; Mark, on the other hand, adds material easily implied in the others: “they divided his garments among them, casting lots for them, to decide what each should take” (Mark 15:24). Cf. also Mark 2:18/Matt 9:14/Luke 5:33.

T. R. W. Longstaff has recently argued that Mark’s redundancies are merely conflations by Mark of what he found in Matthew and Luke. This is analogous to early Byzantine scribal tendencies to conflate material found in earlier witnesses (i.e., in Alexandrian and ‘Western’ MSS).26 However, this view is inadequate because of the 213 conflations detected in Mark, on only 17 occasions are there two “prongs”—one in Matthew and the other in Luke—which could form the basis for conflation in Mark.27 Thus in something quite a bit less than 10% of the instances could conflation be detected as the motive!

What further argues against the possibility of conflation is the motive:

It is difficult to think that Mark chose to eliminate such material as the Beatitudes, the Lord’s Prayer, and the birth narratives but chose in the examples above to enlarge his accounts by the use of redundant expressions. Such a use of Matthew and Luke by Mark is much more difficult to accept than to believe that Matthew and Luke tended to make such redundant expressions shorter. The redundancy of Mark is best explained on the basis of a Markan priority.28

3. Mark’s Harder Readings

There are several passages in Mark which paint a portrait of Jesus (or the disciples, etc.) that could be misunderstood. These passages have been altered in either Matthew or Luke or both on every occasion. It is the conviction of many NT scholars that this category is a very strong blow to the Griesbach hypothesis—and one which has not been handled adequately by Matthean prioritists.29 Among the several possible passages which scholars have noticed, the following are particularly impressive to me. Still, the cumulative effect is what makes the biggest impression.

(1) Mark 6:5-6/Matt 13:58—“he could not do any mighty work there except . . . ”/“he did not do many works there . . . because of their unbelief.” On this text Farmer comments: “the passage offers no clear indication that . . . Matthew has ‘toned down’ a phrase in Mark which ‘might cause offense or suggest difficulties’.”30 But this ignores the verbs used, for Mark suggests inability on Jesus’ part, while Matthew simply indicates unwillingness (οὐκ ἐδύνατο vs. οὐκ ἐποίησεν). Cf. also Mark 1:32-34/Matt 8:16/Luke 4:40 for a similar text.

(2) Mark 10:18/Matt 19:17/Luke 18:19—“Good teacher . . . Why do you call me good?” (in Mark and Luke) vs. “Teacher . . . Why do you ask me about what is good?” (Matthew). The text, as Mark has it, might imply that Jesus denies his own deity. It is apparent that Luke did not read it that way, but Matthew probably did. Indeed, in the Holtzmann/Streeter view, Matthew and Luke copied Mark independently of one another. Thus what might offend one would not necessarily offend the other.31

(3) Mark 3:5/Luke 6:10—“he looked around at them with anger/he looked around on them all.” Matthew omits the verse entirely, though he includes material both before and after it (12:12-13). That Luke would omit a statement regarding Jesus’ anger is perfectly understandable.

(4) Mark 1:12/Matt 4:1/Luke 4:1—“the Spirit drove him into the desert” (Mark)/ “Jesus was led into the desert by the Spirit” (Matthew and Luke). Mark uses the very harsh ἐκβάλλω, while Matthew and Luke use (ἀν)άγω, a much gentler term, to describe the Spirit’s role in bringing Jesus to the desert for temptation.

(5) Mark 8:24-26—the different stages of a particular healing story, omitted in Matthew and Luke. The blind man is partially healed the first time by Jesus, then fully the second time. This is the only healing story in the synoptic gospels which required two stages. Perhaps this was the reason for its omission in Matthew/Luke, or perhaps it was the fact that saliva was used as the means of healing.32

(6) Mark 3:20-21—The statement that Jesus’ mother and brothers tried to seize him because they said that he was insane (ἐξέστη). Neither Matthew nor Luke have this verse, apparently because it would cast aspersions on Jesus’ mother and brothers.

4. The Lack of Matthew-Luke Agreements Against Mark:

The Argument from Verbal Agreements

Stein points out that “Matthew-Luke agreements against Mark are considerably less frequent than any of the other forms of agreement”33 and that what best explains this phenomenon is Markan priority in which Matthew and Luke copied Mark independently of one another. In particular, Markan priority best answers three questions:

(1) Why at times Matthew and Mark agree against Luke—Luke diverges from his Markan source whereas Matthew does not.

(2) Why at times Mark and Luke agree against Matthew—Matthew diverges from his Markan source whereas Luke does not.

(3) Why Matthew and Luke seldom agree against Mark—this would require a coincidental change on the part of Matthew and Luke of their Markan source in exactly the same manner.34

5. The Lack of Matthew-Luke Agreements Against Mark: The Argument from Order

What has indisputably been considered to be the strongest argument for Markan priority is the argument from order. Karl Lachmann was the first to articulate it clearly. The basic argument is both positive and negative: (1) positively: when all three gospels share pericopae, Matthew and Luke agree in the order of those pericopae a great deal; (2) negatively: when either Matthew or Luke departs from the order of Mark in the arrangement of pericopae, they never agree against Mark. To put this another way: in the narratives common to all three, Matthew and Luke agree in sequence only when they agree with Mark; when they both diverge from Mark, they both go in different directions. What best accounts for this? Most NT scholars have assumed that Markan priority does. Some have gone so far as to say that Lachmann proved Markan priority.

In recent decades, however, students of the Griesbach school have debated the argument from order. In particular, B. C. Butler in 1951 boldly called this “the Lachmann fallacy.” His argument was that “if Matthew, Mark, and Luke are directly related to one another rather than being indirectly related through some earlier source which all three have independently copied, then the phenomenon of order no more supports the priority of Mark than priority of Matthew or Luke.”35 This is so because if Mark is the last gospel, then this author could have arranged his material on the basis of common arrangement between Matthew and Luke, and would have followed one or the other whenever they disagreed. This has been quite a tour de force for Matthean prioritists.36

There are four problems with this tour de force. First, this view must presuppose that either Matthew used Luke or that Luke used Matthew. Once that is assumed, several problems surface that are not easily explained.

Second, on this presupposition, one has to wonder why the second gospel (i.e., Matthew or Luke using the other) diverges in its order from the first so frequently. If Luke used Matthew, for example, why did he break up the Sermon on the Mount, leaving out several pericopae? Further, why did he alter/replace the birth narrative with one less colorful—and indeed, one less well suited to his purposes?

Third, this view does not easily explain the large amount of material common to Matthew and Luke, but absent in Mark. But “if we once accept Matthew’s and Luke’s use of a major common source other than Mark to explain this common material, there seems little reason to reject the theory of Markan priority.”37

Fourth, a careful examination of Mark 1:1–6:6 and the parallels in Matthew and Luke38 reveals that the reasons for Luke’s/Matthew’s departures from Mark’s order are well-suited to their various literary purposes, while the supposition that Mark rearranged the material does not fit any easily detected pattern in his gospel.39

In sum, although it would be too bold to say that Markan priority is completely demonstrated by the argument from order, it certainly looks like the most plausible view. Once it is kept in mind that historical reconstruction is concerned with probability vs. possibility, rather than absolute proof either for or against a position, Markan priority stands as quite secure.

6. Literary Agreements

“There exist in the synoptic Gospels a number of literary agreements that can best be explained on the basis of a Markan priority. These involve certain omissions and wordings that make much more sense on the basis of Matthew and/or Luke having changed their Markan source than vice versa.”40

7. The Argument from Redaction

“Probably the most weighty argument used today in favor of a Markan priority involves the comparison of the synoptic Gospels in order to note their respective theological emphases.”41 Most commentators assume Markan priority (the commentaries by Mann, Guelich, and Gundry are rare exceptions). “In general it would appear that a Matthean use of Mark provides a clear and consistent redactional emphasis. The same can also be said of Luke’s handling of Mark. On the other had, from the viewpoint of a Markan redaction criticism, a Markan use of Matthew (and/or Luke) seems most unlikely.”42 Several examples can be adduced to show this.

a. Matthean Redactional Emphases Compared with Mark and Luke
1) “Son of David”43

This phrase occurs eleven times in Matthew, four in Mark and Luke. Sheer numbers do not do this justice. Matthew begins his gospel with this phrase (1:1). Further, when a comparison is made, pericope by pericope, it can be seen that this is truly a Matthean emphasis. Cf., e.g., Matt 12:22-24/Mark 3:22/Luke 11:14-15. If Matthew were the first gospel, why would Mark and Luke omit this phrase seven times? That they have no aversion to it is seen from the four references. Further, the four references in Mark match the four in Luke, suggesting that Luke used Mark but was unaware of Matthew.

2) Fulfillment Motif

Matthew’s ten (or eleven) introductory formulae (“this was to fulfill...”) are not duplicated exactly in either Mark or Luke. Since both Mark and Luke use other introductory formulae (such as “it is written”), this shows that they too were interested in linking the life of Jesus to the OT. But would they omit all of Matthew’s formulae? It is easier to believe that Matthew added them to his copy of Mark, in order to show to Jewish Christians that Jesus truly was the Christ. “That the formula quotations are secondary additions to the text is evident in Matthew 1:22; 2:15, 17, 23; 4:14; 8:17; 12:17; 13:35; 21:4; and 27:9. These passages could all be simply excised from their context, and although we would be much poorer as a result, their omission would never be noticed.”44

b. Markan Stylistic Features Compared with Matthew
1) “Immediately”

The word “immediately” (εὐθύς) is distinctively Markan, occurring over 40 times. Every time Matthew has the word, there is a parallel in Mark. Further, the alternate spelling, εὐθέως, is almost always paralleled in Mark by εὐθύς. “Of the 18,293 words found in Matthew, 10,901 have Markan parallels. In these 10,901 words, ‘immediately’ occurs seventeen times, but in the 7,392 words in Matthew that do not have a Markan parallel, it occurs only once.”45 On the Griesbach hypothesis, we would expect to see twelve instances of “immediately” in the material which finds no parallel with Mark. In other words, Mark’s usage is consistent throughout, while Matthew’s increases only in parallels with Mark. This strongly suggests that Matthew used Mark.

2) “For”

Mark uses an explanatory γάρ in an editorial comment 34 times (of his 66 uses of this conjunction). Matthew, on the other hand, uses γάρ 11 times in editorial comments (out of his 123 total uses), ten of which parallel Mark’s usage. “Statistically [assuming Matthean priority], one would expect approximately seven such clauses [in Matthew’s non-parallel material]. On the other hand, on the basis of Markan priority, one would expect a greater occurrence of the Markan stylistic feature in the sections of Matthew that have parallels to Mark than in the other sections, and this is exactly what we find.”46

3) Historical Present

Mark has 151 historical presents, compared to Matthew’s 78 and Luke’s nine. There was an aversion to the historical present by the most literary authors, which well explains Luke’s usage (five of his historical presents are, in fact, found in the parables of Jesus and do not belong to his own narrative style). This consistent use of the historical present by one author vs. the inconsistent use by the other two argues not only that Mark was the first gospel but also that Luke, at least, felt some aversion to the use of the historical present, and consequently chose to alter it to a more literary tense.47

In sum, the redactional argument gains weight on a cumulative basis. When the same redactional, grammatical, and stylistic patterns emerge in one gospel but are inconsistent in another gospel, one has to ask why. If the pattern is insignificant and merely stylistic (such as the use of conjunctions), then presumably the first gospel would be the more consistent one. On the other hand, if the pattern has meaning (e.g., “Son of David”) then the omission/addition of such a rich phrase by one writer would have to be intentional. On this score, it is much easier to see why an author would add such an expression than omit it. On both fronts, then (the significant and insignificant patterns), Mark looks like the source Matthew used, rather than vice versa.

8. Mark’s More Primitive Theology

There are many lines which one could draw to illustrate Mark’s more primitive theology. One particular piece of evidence is the use of “Lord” (κύριος) in the Synoptic Gospels. Mark uses it of Jesus only six times in the triple tradition; Matthew, on the other hand, has it fifteen times in the triple tradition. “It seems reasonable, simply on the basis of numbers, to understand the greater number of instances in which Jesus is called kyrios in Matthew as a secondary development in which this favorite title of the early church is read more and more into the gospel accounts.”48 When one compares all three gospels in their triple tradition, it is evident that nowhere does Mark have “Lord” when either Matthew or Luke has a more primitive term (such as “Rabbi,” or “Teacher”), but on several occasions either Matthew or Luke changes Mark’s less colorful term to “Lord.”

9. Conclusion

To sum up reasons for Markan priority, the following eight arguments have been given.

(1) The argument from length. Although Mark’s Gospel is shorter, it is not an abridgment, nor a gospel built exclusively on Matthew-Luke agreement. In fact, where its pericopae parallel Matthew and/or Luke, Mark’s story is usually the longest. The rich material left out of his gospel is inexplicable on the Griesbach hypothesis.

(2) The argument from grammar. Matthew and especially Luke use better grammar and literary style than Mark, suggesting that they used Mark, but improved on it.

(3) The argument from harder readings. On the analogy of early scribal habits, Luke and Matthew apparently removed difficulties from Mark’s Gospel in making their own. If Matthean priority is assumed, then what is inexplicable is why Mark would have introduced such difficulties.

(4) The argument from verbal agreement. There are fewer Matthew-Luke verbal agreements than any other two-gospel verbal agreements. This is difficult to explain on the Griesbach hypothesis, much easier on the Lachmann/Streeter hypothesis.

(5) The argument from agreement in order. Not only do Luke and Matthew never agree with each other when they depart from Mark’s order, but the reasons for this on the assumption of Markan priority are readily available while on Matthean priority they are not.

(6) The argument from literary agreements. Very close to the redactional argument, this point stresses that on literary analysis, it is easier to see Matthew’s use of Mark than vice versa.

(7) The argument from redaction. The redactional emphases in Mark, especially in his stylistic minutiae, are only inconsistently found in Matthew and Luke, while the opposite is not true. In other words, Mark’s style is quite consistent, while Luke and Matthew are inconsistent—when they parallel Mark, there is consistency; when they diverge, they depart from such. This suggests that Mark was the source for both Matthew and Luke.

(8) The argument from Mark’s more primitive theology. On many fronts Mark seems to display a more primitive theology than either Luke or Matthew. This suggests that Matthew and Luke used Mark, altering the text to suit their purposes.

Of these eight arguments, the ones that have been most convincing to me are (in order): the argument from order, the argument from Mark’s harder readings (including his more primitive theology),49 the argument from length, and the argument from redaction. On the other hand, what those of the Griesbach school have failed at is to give a convincing reason as to why Mark was ever written. And once written, why would it ever be preserved?50

There are still two questions which must be resolved if Markan priority is to be established as the most probable hypothesis. First, there are numerous places where Matthew and Luke have common material that is absent from Mark. This raises the question as to whether they both used a common source or whether one borrowed from the other. Markan prioritists would say that they both used a common source—given the title “Q”51 (whose nature and existence are disputed)—while Matthean prioritists would argue that Luke used Matthew. Second, there are minor agreements between Matthew and Luke in triple tradition passages which suggest some kind of literary borrowing between these two—if so, then Markan priority is thereby damaged (for Matthew and Luke, in this case, would not have used Mark independently of one another).

C. The Existence of Q

Matthew and Luke have in common about 235 verses not found in Mark.52 The verbal agreements between these two is often as striking as it is between Matthew and Mark, Mark and Luke, or Matthew and Mark and Luke. Cf., e.g., Matt 6:24/Luke 16:13; Matt 7:7-11/Luke 11:9-13. Only two viable reasons for such parallels can be given: either one gospel writer knew and used the gospel of the other, or both used a common source. Lukan priority is virtually excluded on the basis of a number of considerations (not the least of which is his improved grammar, as well as the major gap in his use of Mark),53 leaving Matthean priority as the only viable option for intra-gospel borrowing. There are a number of considerations against this, however, as well as a number of arguments in favor of the existence of Q.

1. Did Luke Not Know Matthew?

a. Luke’s Lack of Matthean Additions to the Triple Tradition

“One of the strongest arguments against the use of Matthew by Luke is the fact that when Matthew has additional material in the triple tradition (‘Matthean additions to the narrative’), it is ‘never’ found in Luke.”54 In particular, one ought to note the fulfillment motif of Matthew which is not duplicated in Luke (cf. Matt 8:16-17/Mark 1:32-34/Luke 4:40-41). There is a double problem for the Griesbach school in passages of this sort: (1) Why would Luke omit such rich material, especially since it would well serve the purpose of his gospel? (2) How can we account for the fact that both Luke and Mark omit this material? In the Holtzmann/Streeter hypothesis, however, Luke copied Mark as he had it, while Matthew added material. “If Matthew and Luke both used Mark independently, we would expect that their editorial additions to the account would seldom, if ever, agree with one another. Rather, they would appear as ‘Matthean additions’ and ‘Lukan additions’ to the narratives. And this is exactly what we find.”55

b. Luke’s Different Context for the Q Material

If Luke used Matthew, why does he never place the common (double tradition) material in the same context as it appears in Matthew? Matthew has five well-defined sections of sayings of Jesus which are, for the most part, absent in Mark but present in Luke. In each he concludes the section with “and when Jesus finished these sayings.” But Luke scatters these sayings throughout his gospel. The most common explanation is that Matthew has rearranged the Q material into five topics, while Luke has simply incorporated Q into his document.56 “The thesis that Luke obtained the Q material from Matthew cannot explain why Luke would have rearranged this material in a totally different and ‘artistically inferior’ format.”57

c. Luke’s More Primitive Context for the Q Material

“The arrangement of the material in Matthew is extremely well done. The Sermon on the Mount (Matt. 5-7) ranks as one of the greatest works of literature ever written. Why would Luke, who was by no means an inept writer, choose to break up this masterpiece and scatter its material in a far less artistic fashion throughout his Gospel?”58 Again, this argument assumes that Matthew has rearranged Q and Luke has not, and it is supported by the premise that Luke’s arrangement is inferior. This argument cannot carry as much weight as Stein gives it if Luke’s structure is also highly artistic, as has recently been demonstrated. However, it still bears some weight: if Luke’s structure is highly artistic as well as Matthew’s, there is every likelihood that both authors have rearranged the material.

d. The Form of the Q Material

On the Griesbach hypothesis, if Luke used Matthew, we would expect Luke to have a more refined development (in theology, dominical sayings, etc.), and Matthew would evidence greater primitivity. Yet, there are times when Matthew is more developed theologically (e.g., the use of κύριος to describe Jesus, etc.). If, on the other hand, both used Q (and Mark) independently of one another, we would expect both gospels to alternate between primitivity and development. This, indeed, is what is found. For example, the Lord’s Prayer in Matt 6:9-13 is more elaborate than it is in Luke 11:2-4 (especially in that it adds “your will be done on earth as it is in heaven”). Yet, at the same time, it displays greater primitivity in that it says “forgive us our trespasses” while Luke has “forgive us our sins.” In Matt 7:9-11/Luke 11:11-13 we see that “your heavenly Father gives good things to those who ask him” in Matthew, while he “gives the Holy Spirit” in Luke. Further, in the Sermon on the Mount, Matthew speaks of “the poor in spirit” and those who “hunger for righteousness” while Luke simply refers to the poor and the hungry. Matthew clearly has a more developed articulation of the implication of Jesus’ words than does Luke.59

Overall, Luke has a greater number of harder readings than does Matthew in the common material. This is quite difficult to explain on the basis of Matthean priority. Especially is this so when Luke’s gospel involves certain motifs that would have benefited from Matthew’s articulation. Personally, I regard this as a very strong argument against Matthean priority.

e. Matthew’s and Luke’s Lack of Agreement in Order

Although (as it has been pointed out) Matthew’s and Luke’s complete lack of agreement in order whenever they disagree with Mark does not prove Markan priority, if Markan priority is assumed, this does establish that Matthew and Luke used Mark independently of one another. Thus, at least one permutation is negated by this evidence, viz., that either Matthew used Luke or Luke used Matthew as a secondary source.60

f. Luke’s Lack of M Material

Finally, the fact that Luke lacks the ‘M’ material (material unique to Matthew) and, conversely, the fact that Matthew lacks the ‘L’ material, argues that neither knew the other. It should be carefully noted that this is not circular reasoning, though on the face of it it seems to be. As soon as we define ‘M’ as material unique to Matthew, then of course Luke would lack it! But that is not the real point of this argument. Rather, it is that there is so much material in Matthew—and rich material at that—which would in all probability have been utilized by Luke had he known of it, that for him not to have used it strongly suggests that he did not know of its existence. (The same can be said for Matthew’s lack of ‘L’ material.) For example, Luke lacks the coming of the magi to Jesus after his birth (Matt 2:1-12)—yet these are Gentiles (a key motif in Luke-Acts). The flight to Egypt, the Great Commission (again, picking up a motif relevant to a Gentile audience) are also missing. In fact, Luke has almost no narrative (as opposed to didactic) material that is not found in Mark. Further, Luke’s birth narrative is so different from Matthew’s that one wonders why he would not try to harmonize it better, assuming that he thought Matthew’s account was reliable.61

As Stein points out,

It is, of course, impossible to know what was going through the mind of Luke when he wrote and why he might have omitted this or that account from his Gospel. Such mental acts are beyond the capacity of the exegete to reconstruct with any certainty. Nevertheless, it is possible to discuss which procedure appears more probable in light of how an Evangelist handles the other material found in his Gospel. It would therefore appear that Luke’s use of Matthew is improbable, due to the lack of his incorporation of the M material into his Gospel.62

In other words, historical reconstruction belongs to the realm of probability vs. possibility, not truth vs. falsehood or certainty vs. uncertainty. To be sure, it is possible that Matthew’s Gospel was the first—and none of the arguments for Markan priority can completely erase that possibility. But whether it most probably is the first gospel is another issue. The arguments for Markan priority speak loudly against that supposition.63

To sum up, if Luke did not use Matthew (as the evidence seems to indicate), then why do Matthew and Luke share so much common material not found in Mark? The only solution is that they got their information from a common source. But was this source oral tradition or a written document? We will deal with this question in the next section, and finally conclude with arguments for the existence of Q.

2. Was “Q” a Written Source?

Scholars have presented four primary arguments that Q was a single, written document.

a. The Exactness of Wording

Many common pericopae between Matthew and Luke have identical or near identical wording, such as is common to triple tradition material. If the exactness of wording in the triple tradition argues that Matthew and Luke used a written document—namely, Mark—as the source, it would seem that double tradition exactness would argue for a written document shared by Matthew and Luke—namely, Q. However, two points militate against this to some degree: (1) There are not nearly as many pericopae in Matthew-Luke as there are in Matthew-Mark-Luke (or Matthew-Mark or Mark-Luke). (2) Several of the pericopae shared by Matthew and Luke have quite dissimilar wording. Thus, Q does not altogether parallel Mark either in quantity (number of pericopae) or quality (identical wording). The evidence, on the whole, argues that Q was both a written document and oral traditions.

b. The Order of the Material

Although there are several disagreements in order in the Q material between Matthew and Luke, there are also some general correspondences, and a few that are even striking.64 Still, “if Matthew’s and Luke’s use of Mark can serve as a pattern for how they used their sources, at least one of them did not use his Q source in the same way that he used Mark!”65 Overall, the argument from order still carries some weight, though there seems to be the distinct possibility that Q was both a written document and oral traditions.

c. “Doublets” in Matthew and Luke

Several scholars see doublets as the primary evidence of a written Q. A doublet “refers to the appearance of the same account or text two times in a Gospel.”66 Usually this is a saying of Jesus, though scholars have detected a small number of narratives that seem to be doublets. What is most significant about these doublets is that in almost all of them, one half of the doublet is paralleled in Mark and one half in Q. Altogether, scholars have detected eleven such doublets in Luke and twenty-two in Matthew.67 For example, Matthew records twice the dominical saying about cutting off the offending appendage. Matthew records this saying in Matt 5:29-30 and 18:8-9; it is found in Mark 9:45, 47. Yet, only one of these Matthean texts actually parallels Mark’s passage. Matthew 18:8-9 parallels Mark 9:45, 47 in (1) its arrangement in relation to other pericopae, (2) the amount of verbal agreement,68 and (3) the order and amount of offending body parts within the pericope (Matt 5 has right eye, right hand; Matt 18/Mark 9 have hand, foot, eye [‘right’ is not mentioned in either]).

As striking as these examples are, they stop short of proving that Q was a written source, though they do strongly suggest that Matthew and Luke had some common source besides Mark.

d. A Common Vocabulary and Style

This last argument has suggested that there is a common vocabulary and style in the Q material, suggesting that it is more than mere oral tradition. However, snippets of dominical sayings are so guided by form-critical concerns,69 as well as by the possibility of ipsissima verba and certainly ipsissima vox, that these cannot prove a written document.70 Consequently, most scholars have abandoned this approach in the latter part of the twentieth century.

To sum up, that Q existed is a necessary postulate of Markan priority. For many scholars, this is the very weakness of that hypothesis. But given the severe problems of the other approaches to the interdependence of the gospels, Markan priority stands out as by far the most plausible. If it is true, then Q existed. But what shape did it take? I am inclined to think that Q represented both a written source and oral traditions. I do not think that it has been proved that Q was only a written source. This can especially be measured when one compares the use of Mark in Matthew-Luke with that of Q. If Q was a single written source, it was used in a way that is quite different from how Mark was used.

3. Conclusion

By way of conclusion, we want to address the arguments against the existence of Q (regardless of what kind of source Q really was).

There are three principle arguments against the existence of Q: (1) Why was it not preserved? (2) If it existed, it apparently consisted almost exclusively of dominical sayings, lacking the birth narrative, the resurrection, etc. Is it conceivable that such a document could have been produced? (3) “It requires a certain overlapping with the materials in order to explain such Matthew-Luke agreements as we find in the baptismal accounts . . . ; the Beelzebul incident . . . ; the parable of the mustard seed . . . ; and the mission charge . . . . The overlapping of the Q material with Mark has often been viewed as an embarrassment for the Q hypothesis and has even been sarcastically referred to as the ‘blessed overlap.’”71 We will address these arguments in chiastic fashion.

First, one should expect some degree of overlap between Q and Mark, especially in the dominical sayings. Not only do the doublets show this, but the fact that both are dealing with the same person would make zero overlap almost inconceivable.

. . . on a purely theoretical basis, it would be most unusual if two sources concerning Jesus, such as Mark and Q, did not overlap in some way. After all, they do deal with the same person, with incidents in his life and sayings that he uttered, so that some overlap would be expected. The issue of overlap serves as an embarrassment for the Q hypothesis only if the hypothesis requires an inordinate amount of such overlapping and is inherently “unlikely” in individual instances. Overlap in the baptism accounts, for example, is by no means that surprising.72

Second, as strange as it may sound to modern ears to think that a document simply of sayings of Jesus might have existed at some time—and would have been meaningful to the early Christians—there are parallels to this.

(1) First, and most important, is the Gospel of Thomas which comprises 114 sayings of Jesus without any connection between them. Although this was a heretical document written at a later date, the analogy is not disturbed: a book of Jesus’ sayings had meaning in the early church.

(2) Second, if Papias’ statement about Matthew writing the λογία of Jesus in Hebrew is authentic in any way, then even Matthew himself might have written a book or several pamphlets of dominical sayings.73 In the Fragments of Papias 2:16 (preserved by Eusebius), Papias says this about Matthew’s Gospel:74 “And concerning Matthew he said the following: ‘Instead [of writing in Greek],75 Matthew arranged the oracles76 in the Hebrew dialect, and each man interpreted them as he was able.’”

(3) Third, there were several agrapha “floating” around in the first two or three centuries of the Church which many patristic writers felt were authentic dominical sayings. Several of them even crept into MSS of the Gospels. It is quite possible that portions of Q have been preserved for us in the agrapha. And if this is not the case, in the least something like Q has been preserved in these agrapha, though in an admittedly fragmentary way.77

Third, why was Q not preserved? As we have suggested, it may well have been preserved in part—either as part of Matthew (who may have authored some of it in the first place), or in the agrapha found in the gospel MSS and among patristic citations. But beyond this are three other considerations. (1) First, in light of Luke’s preface, he apparently used a lot of materials which were not preserved. Why should Q be any different? On any view, the canonical gospels absorbed the best of the previous written documents. (2) Second, transmission history reveals that non-canonical books did not get copied very much at all. (3) Third, patristic writers (and other ancient writers) frequently mention books—and very important and valuable books, judging by their descriptions—which are no longer extant. Why should Q be an exception to this? In light of all this, it is hardly surprising that we do not have Q (especially if it was fragmentary, and, in part, merely oral tradition). Indeed, it would be most surprising if Q was preserved past the end of the first century!78

D. The Matthew-Luke Agreements Against Mark

In this final section on the synoptic problem, we will consider what has been termed as “the major stumbling-block for acceptance of the two-source hypothesis”:

Clearly the key question and major stumbling-block for acceptance of the two-source hypothesis . . . involves the issue of the various Matthew-Luke agreements against Mark. If these “require” that Luke knew (used) Matthew, then both the Q hypothesis and the priority of Mark become questionable. Q would then become unnecessary, for its existence is dependent on Matthew and Luke not knowing each other’s work. Also, although one could still argue for Markan priority if Luke used Matthew, many of the arguments for Markan priority would have been compromised and a Matthean priority would become more attractive.79

To be more specific, there are, in the triple tradition pericopes, four different kinds of minor agreements between Matthew and Luke that are not shared by Mark: (1) agreement in omission of details found in Mark; (2) agreement in addition of details not found in Mark; (3) agreement in expressions and wording against Mark; and (4) agreement in divergence from Mark’s expressions. Altogether, scholars have detected between 272 and 770 minor agreements.80 Our approach will be to look at three categories of minor agreements (organized on a somewhat different principle than above, though excluding none of it), with an attempted response from the Holtzmann/Streeter school.

1. Matthew-Luke Agreements in Omission

The great majority of Matthew-Luke agreements belong to this category (180 of the 272, according to Stoldt). This is quite significant, because “if Matthew and Luke omit respectively 6,593 and 8,038 words of Mark’s 11,025 words, there would have to be numerous agreements in omission as a matter of course!81 Not only this, but the argument cuts both ways: If Mark were the last gospel, what is to explain his 180 additions—especially if his was an “abridged” version? Further, on the assumption of Markan priority, if Matthew and Luke wanted to add material from other sources (e.g., Q), many of their common omissions are quite predictable, in light of Mark’s redundancies, Aramaic expressions, etc.

2. Matthew-Luke Agreements in Grammar and Editing

There are scores of agreements between Matthew and Luke against Mark in terms of grammar and editing. On the assumption of Matthean priority, these may well look impressive. But on the assumption of Markan priority, they seem quite irrelevant. Four kinds are discussed below.

a. Historical Present

Mark uses the historical present 151 times; Matthew, 78; Luke, 9. The data can be used to argue for several different hypotheses. Stein summarizes well how they are used both by those of the Griesbach school and those of the Holtzmann/Streeter school:

Farmer has argued that Luke did not have a strong aversion to the use of the historical present since he has six examples of this in his non-Mark material. This argument is fallacious, however, because according to Farmer, Luke used Matthew. If Luke avoided at least seventy-two of the seventy-eight times in which the historical present is found in Matthew, certainly we cannot disallow his seeking to do the same if he used Mark! Actually the one clear example we possess of how the historical present is treated by a later gospel writer is found in the Gospel of Luke. Luke’s clear tendency, whether he used Matthew or Mark, is to eliminate the historical present. On the basis of the two-document hypothesis, all we need to do to explain these agreements is to presume that Matthew had a similar, although not as thorough, tendency in this area as Luke. On the other hand, according to the Griesbach Hypothesis, we must explain two equally strong but opposite tendencies: Luke sought to avoid the historical present in his Matthean source, and Mark sought to add the historical present to his Matthean source, even though his Lukan source avoided it. To explain the data, the Griesbach Hypothesis therefore requires two totally opposite tendencies on the part of Mark and Luke. The two-source hypothesis does not. The Griesbach Hypothesis also has difficulties in explaining why Mark, with his strong inclination toward using the historical present, did not follow Matthew in the following instances when he has the historical present in the triple tradition: Matthew 8:26; 9:28; 15:12; 17:20; 19:7, and 8. The theory that Matthew and Luke did not know each other does not encounter any real problem in this particular type of Matthew-Luke agreement against Mark.82

b. Coordinating Conjunctions

In over 30 instances Matthew and Luke use δεv while Mark in the parallel passage uses καιv. This is hardly an argument for Matthean priority, for (1) Matthew and Luke both use δεv approximately twice as often as does Mark; (2) literary Greek tried to avoid simple paratactic constructions (especially the overuse of καί)—hence, a more literary author would tend to replace καιv with other conjunctions; (3) it has been demonstrated that the apocryphal gospels based on Mark tended to replace καιv with δεv.83

c. Verb Usage

As we have discussed earlier, Mark uses φέρω in the sense of “to lead” where Matthew and Luke use the more correct ἄγω. This kind of agreement is, therefore, quite predictable, given Markan priority and given Luke’s and Matthew’s superior literary skills.

d. Miscellaneous

Again, there are a number of miscellaneous agreements between Matthew and Luke which are quite predictable given Markan priori. For example, Matthew and Luke have the more natural and chronologically correct “Moses and Elijah” while Mark has “Elijah with Moses” (Mark 9:4) in the transfiguration account; Matthew and Luke give Herod the more accurate title “tetrarch” while Mark calls him “king” (Mark 6:14); Matthew and Luke speak of Jesus’ resurrection as occurring “on the third day” rather than the more confusing “after three days” (Mark 8:31; 10:34); etc.84 Indeed, these minor agreements are so predictable, given Markan priori, that rather than supporting the Griesbach hypothesis, they strongly confirm the two-source hypothesis!

3. The Most Significant Matthew-Luke Agreements

To be sure, not all the Matthew-Luke agreements are capable of such an easy explanation if Markan priority is true. The number of really significant agreements varies with different scholars: “Fitzmyer lists six: Matthew 26:68, 75; 17:3, 17; 9:7, 20 and their parallels; Hawkins lists twenty[-one]; and Stoldt apparently lists fifty-seven.”85 Among the most significant of these are the following (listed only by Markan reference): Mark 1:7-8; 2:12; 14:65; 3:24, 26-29; 5:27; 6:33; 9:2, 19; 14:72.

Rather than discuss these passages one by one (this paper is already too long!), we will suggest a four-fold complex of reasons as to why such agreements could take place. What should be noted at the outset is two things: (1) since the synoptic problem is not really solved on a single issue, but is rather based on strong cumulative evidence, the very paucity of significant examples of Matthew-Luke agreements is very telling;86 (2) the most significant kind of significant problem will involve places where Matthew and Luke are perceived to be more primitive than Mark. Yet again, even if one or two examples could be produced (and they can), this does not overthrow both the quality and quantity of examples produced on the other side: on almost all fronts Mark’s Gospel appears more primitive.

4. Explanations for the Matthew-Luke Agreements

a. Coincidences Caused by their Redactional Treatment of Mark

As we have argued, many of the less significant agreements between Matthew and Luke can be explained this way (e.g., the omission of the historical present), although few, if any, of the most significant agreements can.

b. The Overlapping of Q

Although one has to be careful not to appeal to Q simply to get out of a difficulty,87

it is inconceivable to think that along with Mark (or Matthew or Luke!) there were not also other collections of sayings or gospel-like collections that existed. Time and time again they must have overlapped. Hypothetically there is therefore no reason why Matthew and Luke could not have been influenced by such accounts in the writing of their Gospels. If Farmer can appeal to overlapping traditions, why cannot Streeter? . . . Possibly the Matthew-Luke agreements against Mark in the baptismal accounts can be explained in this manner. Other agreements that may be due to such overlapping are the temptation, the Beelzebul controversy, the parable of the mustard seed, and the mission charge.88

To elaborate on but one example given above: in John the Baptist’s preaching, after all three gospels record him as saying, “I baptize you with water, but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit” (Mark 1:8), both Matthew and Luke add “and with fire” and then the threat about the winnowing fork (Matt 3:11-12/Luke 3:16-17). But in light of John the Baptist’s message being found in all four gospels, it is obvious that a common oral tradition was known to all four evangelists. There is, then, in this very pericope, evidence of the intermingling of Mark and oral tradition in Luke and Matthew. Whether Q was oral tradition or a written source in this instance, there should be no surprise about overlapping traditions.

c. Textual Corruption

This category has been argued in various ways. For example, Streeter felt that our present copies of Matthew and Luke (i.e., the current critical text of Westcott-Hort used in his day) may be corrupt. Hence, if we were to restore the text properly these minor agreements would disappear. Although there is merit in the text-critical principle of disharmony,89 one must never use this to the neglect of the external evidence. Otherwise, this approach looks suspiciously like the tail wagging the dog! For the most part, however, the modern critical texts have excellent credentials in the external evidence. Yet, a few significant Matthew-Luke agreements still remain (even where no MSS produce a disharmony). Thus, this explanation cannot handle all the data.90

d. Overlapping Oral Traditions

In Stein’s argument for Markan priority in the face of the minor Matthew-Luke agreements, he lists overlapping oral traditions separately from Q. But if Q = a written source and oral traditions, then this really is not a separate category.91 Nevertheless, regarding oral traditions, a further point could be made: if certain oral traditions were known and well rehearsed from the earliest days, they would be more familiar to Matthew and Luke than Mark’s Gospel. Hence, if Mark’s Gospel deviated from the oral tradition, Matthew and Luke would be expected to follow the more familiar oral tradition.

In sum, these four reasons for minor Matthew-Luke agreements can explain, to a large extent, why Matthew and Luke have those minor agreements. Indeed, they explain even the most significant Matthew-Luke agreements. However, there is one category of agreement that would seem difficult to explain on this hypothesis: material in the triple tradition in which Matthew and Luke have a more primitive expression than Mark does. Are there any such places where Mark’s phrase is more developed than both Matthew and Luke’s? The answer to this is a qualified “yes.” I have noticed one text in the triple tradition in which Mark is more developed than Matthew-Luke.92 In Mark 14:62, Jesus’ response to the high priest as to whether he was the Christ is “I am” while in Matthew-Luke his response is “you have said it/you say so” (Matt. 26:64/Luke 22:70).93 Although it is possible to see oral tradition playing a strong role especially in a text such as this, one still has to wonder why Matthew and Luke would not alter the text to the stronger affirmation found in Mark. Still, in the overall scheme of things, one text94 is hardly enough to overthrow Markan priori—especially when there are scores of passages in Mark which give the appearance of being much more primitive than either Matthew or Luke.

E. Conclusion and Implications

By way of conclusion, the evidence seems overwhelmingly to support Markan priority. With the labors of William R. Farmer et al., however, the issue is once more becoming alive in English-speaking circles. Perhaps a new breakthrough in how we view the literary relationships is on the horizon. Until then, one has to operate under some hypothesis. And mine is the two-source hypothesis.

The implications of this affect authorship, date, and purpose of the first three gospels. In particular, these areas are impacted once a fairly firm date for Acts can be established. If Acts was written toward the end of Paul’s first Roman imprisonment (c. 61-2 CE),95 then Luke must have preceded it. And if Luke preceded it, Mark must have preceded Luke (mid to late 50s seems most probable). Further, if both Matthew and Luke used Mark independently of one another, it is difficult to conceive of Matthew having been written much later than 62, even if he were cut off as it were from the literary fruits of the nascent Church. Mid-60s would seem to be the latest date for Matthew. Once such a date is assigned for each of these books, then their traditional authorship becomes virtually unassailable. And the purpose for each book would need to be found within the framework of such a date. There is one more implication which can be made from all this, in regard to date: if neither Matthew nor Luke knew of each other’s work, but both knew and used Mark, how long would it take before someone such as John would become aware of any of these books? Since Gardner-Smith demonstrated long ago John’s independence of the Synoptic Gospels, such independence becomes increasingly incredible with every passing year. There is the very distinct possibility that John, too, was written in the mid-60s.96


1Grand Rapids: Baker, 1987.

2Indeed, I have found Stein’s book so helpful a synthesis of the issues involved, that to a some degree our comments here will be merely a distillation of his work. It should be mentioned, however, that his book is mistitled, for it is not really an even-handed approach to the synoptic problem, but a defense of the priority of Mark.

3Remarkably, Bo Reicke, in the last book he ever published, argued that the interrelationship among the synoptic writers was that of oral tradition rather than literary (i.e., documentary) borrowing (B. Reicke, The Roots of the Synoptic Gospels [Philadelphia: Fortress, 1986]). As careful a scholar as Reicke has always shown himself to be during his career, it is difficult to see in this work much of substance. In the least the argumentation seems strained at several points, and is often built upon speculation, mere possibility, or argument from silence, rather than sound scholarship.

4Stein, Synoptic Problem, 37.

5 Ibid.

6 Ibid., 43.

7See W. R. Farmer, The Synoptic Problem: A Critical Analysis (Macon, GA: Mercer, 1976) 208-209.

8Streeter added that the material unique to Matthew (M) was a written source, and the material unique to Luke (L) was also a written source. Thus, the “Four-Source Hypothesis” (Mark and Q being the first two sources) was born.

9For almost seventeen years I held to Matthean priority (Griesbach hypothesis), but have in recent years abandoned that view. Although the arguments used in this paper for Markan priority are well-known and will certainly not convince one predisposed to Matthean priority, what tipped the scales for me was greater weight given to internal (literary) considerations and less weight given to external considerations (especially early patristic comments about Matthean priority). The reason for this shift was threefold: (1) my text-critical approach was undergoing a similar metamorphosis, paving the way for me to see internal criteria as very important; (2) not only did the early patristic writers appear to contradict themselves as regards the time and motive of NT writings, but they also had a theological bias for preferring Matthew’s Gospel over Mark’s: it was written by an apostle (further, if their view that Mark got his gospel from Peter has any reliability to it, then Matthean priority is thereby dismantled); (3) this second point is confirmed by the testimony of the MSS: every gospel MS which has all four gospels starts with Matthew, in spite of the fact that the order of the other three varies. Some of the MSS (especially of the ‘western’ strain) place John right after Matthew, thus heading the NT canon with two apostles. Thus, if one were to take this datum seriously (as though it indicated literary interdependence or chronological sequence), he would end up with a view which is not found among any modern synoptic scholars (viz., Matthew-John-Mark-Luke)! Had the testimony of patristic writers been consistent, without built-in bias toward apostolic priority, coupled with rather inconclusive internal evidence, Matthean priority would still have held sway with me. The opposite situation, on all fronts, however, seems to be the case, rendering Markan priority by far still the most plausible view.

10Stein, Synoptic Problem, 48.

11A view which has gained adherents in the last two decades—especially among English-speaking scholars—chiefly due to the labors of William R. Farmer, J. B. Orchard, and others.

12Assuming that the gospel intentionally ended at 16:8.

13Stein, Synoptic Problem, only lists the first one (49), but several Matthean prioritists have argued cogently for the second in recent years.

14Stein, Synoptic Problem, 49.

15Ibid., 51.

16Farmer, The Synoptic Problem, 280.

17See especially Robert H. Gundry, Matthew: A Commentary on his Literary and Theological Art, 368 (on Matt 18:16). Gundry, however, takes this view to an extreme in thinking that Matthew at times creates one of the witnesses.

18Farmer, Synoptic Problem, 281: “It would only be with the greatest difficulty that an adherent of the Gospel of Matthew could convincingly argue that Mark was in balance unduly partial to the Gospel of Luke. Similarly, an adherent of the Gospel of Luke would have had little success in attempting to justify a complaint that Mark’s Gospel was unduly partial to the Gospel of Matthew. This is a very important point.” Indeed, Farmer is correct that this is an important point, for without it his liturgical hypothesis as the raison d'être of Mark’s Gospel does not work. Yet, as we have seen, Farmer’s point is not true.

19It is not insignificant that both Matthew and Luke would be close to thirty feet long in a scroll and that the longest (wieldy) scroll was about thirty to thirty-five feet. Thus, Matthew and Luke had to trim some material in order to make sure all that they wanted to write would be included. Mark’s Gospel, on the other hand, would have been closer to twenty feet on a scroll.

20G. M. Styler, “The Priority of Mark,” in C. F. D. Moule, The Birth of the New Testament (New York: Harper, 1962), 231. Cited by Stein, Synoptic Problem, 52. This dictum reveals one of the great weaknesses of the Griesbach hypothesis: what was the reason Mark was written?

21Cf. N. Turner, Style, 11-30, on Markan style in general. Although Turner would rather argue that Mark’s style is largely due to a Hebrew mind-set, he does recognize that most scholars today would affirm that “Mark’s style is unpretentious, verging on the vernacular” (11).

22Not all of Stein’s illustrations are convincing, though most scholars—from Streeter on—have detected Mark’s poorer literary abilities in general.

23This latter is a point not made by Stein, though it would have strengthened his argument. Of all Stein’s grammatical arguments for Mark’s primitiveness, the use of κράβαττον is the only one we found convincing.

24Cf. the complete discussion of “rude, harsh, obscure or unusual words or expressions, which may therefore have been omitted or replaced by others” in Sir John C. Hawkins, Horae Synopticae (2d ed., reprinted; Grand Rapids: Baker, 1968), 131-38.

25Stein, Synoptic Problem, 58. Stein adds the further observation: “. . . careful writers of Greek avoided foreign words, which might explain why such better writers of Greek as Matthew and Luke would tend to omit the Aramaisms found in their source.”

26Thomas R. W. Longstaff, Evidence of Conflation in Mark? (Missoula, MT: Scholars, 1977) 140-52.

27Stein, Synoptic Problem, 61, citing Tuckett’s Griesbach Hypothesis, 20.

28Stein, Synoptic Problem, 61-62.

29This was most recently brought home to me at a recent Society of Biblical Literature annual meeting. At the “Two Gospel Source” Consultation (the name given to the Griesbach hypothesis group at SBL), in which I was in attendance, several papers were read defending Matthean priority. One of them dealt with the issue of Mark’s harder readings and suggested that Mark’s readings were not harder after all. An elderly scholar, who held to Markan priority, got a bit emotional during the discussion period and blurted out, “I cannot hold to Matthean priority because of Mark’s decidedly harder readings.” He proceeded to catalog several of the passages which are being discussed in this section. Neither W. R. Farmer nor J. B. Orchard had much to say on that occasion, even though Farmer had attempted a rebuttal of this kind of evidence in his Synoptic Problem, 159-68.

30Farmer, Synoptic Problem, 160.

31Farmer argues that since this text caused no offense to Luke, it is a poor example. Actually, this kind of example argues both for Markan priority and that Luke and Matthew used Mark independently of one another (on the other hand, are we to argue that Mark, having both Matthew and Luke in front of him, intentionally chose the more difficult reading?). Further, it is possible that Luke’s Christology intentionally builds to a crescendo through Luke-Acts. Whether Jesus Christ was God in the flesh is not answered in Luke 18—nor indeed clearly until one gets to Acts. But since Matthew wrote only a gospel, he would have to clear up the problem at this juncture.

32Farmer disputes this, saying that “so far as is known such stories were not regarded as offensive in any sense” (Synoptic Problem, 167). But the evidence is quite scanty upon which to base such an argument. Further, the only other miracle of Mark’s not recorded by Matthew or Luke was the healing of the deaf-mute (Mark 7:31-37), in which Jesus’ saliva was also used (it may be significant that Matthew does parallel this healing, but only in a very general way—cf. Matt 15:29-31).

33Stein, Synoptic Problem, 68.

34Ibid.

35Farmer, Synoptic Problem, 66.

36Lachmann’s argument was not simply an argument from order, but a reasoned discussion as to why Markan priority best fits the data. Consequently, it is an overstatement to speak of the “Lachmann fallacy.”

37Stein, Synoptic Problem, 70.

38This Markan section is the one in which the most significant Matthew/Luke divergences take place. After Mark 6:7, Luke and Matthew almost always follow the Markan sequence.

39See Kümmel, 57-60, for a decent discussion.

40Stein, Synoptic Problem, 70-71. Cf. his discussions and examples on pp. 70-76.

41Ibid., 76.

42Ibid.

43See Stein, Synoptic Problem, 77-80, for a decent discussion of this phenomenon.

44Stein, Synoptic Problem, 81, n. 38.

45Ibid., 82.

46Ibid., 83.

47On this score it should be noticed that never does Mark use the historical present in the parables of Jesus and Luke and Mark share only one historical present. His other three came from a different source. Cf. Hawkins, Horae Synopticae, 143-49. Further, on the Griesbach hypothesis, if Mark had both Matthew and Luke before him, would he double the historical presents found in Matthew, recognizing that Luke thought such a grammatical device was overused? Such a supposition could be stated in a cumulative way: Would any author with two fairly literary works in front of him alter them throughout into a less literary fashion? On a modern analogy, who would alter William F. Buckley’s language into something that was not only more colloquial, but also imbibed in grammatical solecisms? This would be like making Shakespeare say “ain’t”!

48Stein, Synoptic Problem, 84.

49One argument concerning Mark’s harder readings which has been (as far as I can tell) completely overlooked is the probability that neither Luke nor Matthew had pristine copies of Mark at their disposal. In light of the fact that no two (of the more than 5000) Greek NT MSS are exactly alike (the closest two having between six and ten v.ll. per chapter!), it is rather doubtful that Luke’s copy of Mark looked exactly like Matthew’s—even if these were first generation copies. One must be careful, therefore, not to attribute every alteration between the gospels to the author’s redactional purposes. An intermediate scribe is probably responsible—either intentionally or unintentionally—for more than a few of the changes which ended up in Luke and Matthew.

50Although I have not seen this in print, Markan posteriority is quite analogous to Tatian’s Diatessaron. The fact that that document was banned from the church—even though it contained nothing but material from the four gospels—suggests that if Mark came last, it too would have been banned (or, in the least, hardly copied).

51Perhaps an abbreviation from the German Quelle (“source”), though this has been debated in recent years.

52Stein, Synoptic Problem, 89.

53Surprisingly, there has become a trend of late to argue for Lukan priority (one or two papers were read in defense of this view at a recent SBL conference), though it has apparently fallen on deaf ears.

54Stein, Synoptic Problem, 91. Stein has put “never” in quotation marks, since there are some exceptions, e.g., the baptismal accounts, the temptation, and the parable of the mustard seed.

55Ibid., 94.

56Ibid., 95. There is another explanation however, viz., that Luke has arranged his material on an architectonic principle to some degree.

57Ibid. This is probably an overstatement and one which, to some degree, can be tested. On the assumption of Markan priority, one can tell how Luke used Mark and, by way of analogy, see whether or not it corresponds to his use of Q. Since Luke’s use of Mark is not altogether consistent—i.e., he does not utilize all of Mark’s material, nor always arrange it in the same way that Mark has done (so much is left out that some have even suggested that Luke used a mutilated copy of Mark!), could he not have also done a similar thing with Q? But as soon as this is admitted, then Stein’s argument for Markan priority on this front becomes worthless. If Markan priority can be established on other grounds, then what this at least illustrates is that neither Matthew nor Luke is a reliable guide for the arrangement of material in Q—except, of course, where they agree.

58Ibid., 96.

59For more examples and an excellent discussion, see Stein, Synoptic Problem, 96-101.

60In light of this, in the least Gundry’s premise of a Mark-Luke-Matthew order is overthrown.

61Gundry sees such disparity between the two birth narratives that he supposes that Luke’s is the more primitive and that Matthew has altered it to the more sensational—so much so that the mandatory sacrifice of the turtle doves by the parents on behalf of the first-born son becomes, in Matthew, the slaying of the infants in Bethlehem by Herod’s henchmen! For what this is worth, in the least to argue that Luke used Matthew seems also to imply that he doubted Matthew’s credibility at one or more points. Furthermore, if one wanted to argue that Luke did, indeed, attempt to subdue Matthew’s material into a less sensational, more reliable gospel, then what is to explain how he handles the pericope about the raising of Jairus’ daughter/the healing of the hemorrhaging woman? For in Matthew’s account Jairus approaches Jesus with the news that his daughter had died, while in Luke’s (and, incidentally, Mark’s) account, the hemorrhaging woman interrupts Jesus’s trek to Jairus’ house and it is during this delay in which the little girl dies. Thus, Luke’s account is more sensational and dramatic. (On the Holtzmann hypothesis, Mark/Luke record accurately the event, and Matthew adapts Mark’s account, telescoping the event in order to get to his next dominical homily. This seems a far more reasonable approach, and implicitly preserves both the reliability of the evangelists as well as their regard for each other’s reliability.)

62Stein, Synoptic Problem, 102.

63As a sidenote, I am reminded here of what one colleague (of the Griesbach persuasion) has suggested about writing commentaries on the gospels. He has felt that one should simply not address the issue since it is not yet fully resolved. In my view, that is not the best approach. If one embraces a particular historical reconstruction, the best way for it to be tested is in the crucible of exegesis. Further, something happened back then and to ignore this only makes our exegesis so much the poorer. (Is it possible to use the same argument on textual criticism—and simply not decide between variants?!) Always, of course, our exegesis needs to be done with humility, simply because we are not absolutely sure of all of the data. But real progress cannot be made in biblical studies until historical reconstructions are put to the rigorous test of exegetical detail.

64See Stein, Synoptic Problem, 104-107, for examples. Although Stein does not clear up the problem, this kind of agreement in order must not be confused with the fact that Matthew and Luke never agree in order with one another when either departs from Mark. For when one departs from Mark’s order he might still employ Mark’s material. Further, even though Matthew and Luke might depart from Mark at the same time, they do not, at that time, jump to the Q material. Where they can agree with one another in using Q is in larger segments of material (more than one pericope strung together) which are nevertheless placed in different locations in relation to their material.

65Ibid., 104.

66Ibid., 107.

67Ibid., 107. See Hawkins, Horae Synopticae, 80-107, for the data.

68Matthew 5:29-30 has only twenty words in common with Mark 9:45, 47, while Matt 18:8-9 has more than fifty (Hawkins, Horae Synopticae, 83).

69By this we simply mean that the oral tradition certainly lent shape to different kinds of forms, such as healing stories, pronouncement stories, miracles, etc. This is hardly saying any more than that a TV weather report will not resemble the headline stories in form, nor the sports update. By way of comparison, the apocryphal Gospel of Thomas contains 114 snippets of dominical sayings, each imbibing in a similar form—and that form coming very close to the form of dominical sayings found in the canonical gospels. This does not mean, however, either that Thomas has authentic sayings of Jesus or even that it was the work of one author.

70One could see an analogy in oral traditions about famous people. For example, if I were to attempt to imitate Richard Nixon, I would stretch my arms over my head, flashing the victory sign, and begin with “My fellow Americans . . . .” Such a form, however, does not presuppose a written document—even though it would be universally known.

71Stein, Synoptic Problem, 110.

72Ibid. We can add here an analogy. Over fifty years ago, P. Gardner-Smith virtually proved Johannine independence from the Synoptic Gospels. Yet, there are some common accounts found in all four gospels (e.g., the feeding of the five thousand, the cleansing of the temple, the statements about John the Baptist, certain dominical sayings, etc.). And in these common accounts there are occasionally remarkable verbal parallels. Yet, if John did not employ the synoptics to write his gospel, why are these parallels so remarkable? There must have been a common oral tradition that both John and the synoptics drew from. If this is so where all four gospels are concerned, then could it not also be so where only three are concerned? In fact, this creates the distinct possibility that, at times, Matthew and/or Luke altered Mark in light of the oral tradition with which they were more familiar.

73It is my tentative opinion, though I cannot develop it in this paper, that Matthew might have written several pamphlets of dominical sayings in Aramaic. This is what Papias is referring to (λογία, after all, is not “acts” but “discourses, sayings,”). When Mark’s Gospel was published, Matthew’s audience wanted a framework for the sayings of Jesus. It would have been at this time that Matthew organized the sayings into five thematic units, and used Mark’s Gospel as a framework for them. One of the evidences of this internally is that the narrative material in Matthew is almost merely “stage setting” for the didactic material—each narrative section (except for the birth and passion narratives) concludes with a message by Jesus. The point is that Matthew himself may well have written a document very much like Q (is it even possible that he wrote Q?!).

74The above is my translation, taken from the most recent critical edition of The Fragments of Papias.

75μὲν οὖν—this both looks back and is mildly contrastive (‘rather, indeed’). The contrast could either be to the language or to the arrangement.

76τὰ λογία—if Papias had just spoken of Mark’s gospel, then the reference is to the same thing (i.e., oral tradition about the life of Jesus). But if Eusebius is merely quoting without giving us a proper context (i.e., if Eusebius has juxtaposed two statements by Papias about the gospel writers which, when originally written, were in different contexts), then τὰ λογία could refer to the sayings of Jesus. (The problem with seeing Papias’ statements as coming from different contexts is both the subject matter [composition of the gospels] and the connective μὲν οὖν.)

Nevertheless, in light of the possibility that Papias was speaking about the sayings of Jesus, I suggest the following hypothesis about the composition of the first two gospels. Mark recorded Peter’s messages about Jesus while Peter was still alive. At about the same time, Matthew published isolated sayings of Jesus in Aramaic for his and other Jewish-Christian communities. He would, therefore, have been unaware of Mark’s work, just as Mark would have been unaware of Matthew’s. Over the next few years, the dominical material of Matthew would have been translated into Greek. At the same time, Matthew’s own community wanted a framework for these sayings, in light of the publication of Mark’s Gospel. Mark was at hand for the framework, and some of Mark’s material duplicated Matthew’s (e.g., the Olivet Discourse) and was already in Greek. Hence, Matthew used Mark as his basic framework, even where sermonic material was found in Mark. Then, Matthew reorganized these isolated sayings of Jesus into five great sermons (though one was already found in Mark—viz., the Olivet Discourse). For the rest, Matthew simply supplemented Mark with a fulfillment-motif, birth narrative, etc. This hypothesis both affirms Markan priority and Papias’ statement about Matthew’s ‘Hebrew.’ As well, it strongly affirms that Matthew implicitly recognized the reliability of Mark’s Gospel. Still, it does leave several questions open: (1) Does Papias really mean ‘sermons’ when he writes τὰ λογία for Matthew, but oral tradition or worse, historical narrative when he refers to Mark’s λογία? (See Lampe, A Patristic Greek Lexicon, s.v., λογίον [806], for definitions of Papias’ usage as an argument for our hypothesis.) The quotation by Eusebius seems to imply that the same idea is meant for both authors. (2) If Papias really meant Jesus’ sermons for Matthew’s logiva, then he seems to be privy to a very short-lived tradition (i.e., from the time of the writing of the sermons to their packaging in a Greek gospel), without evidencing knowledge of the Greek gospel itself. (3) Internally, there are still problems between the two gospels: the overlap of the Olivet Discourse seems especially to abandon Ockham’s razor for our hypothesis. Still, if this hypothesis (or a modification of it) has validity, it satisfies not only Markan priority and Papias’ reliability, but also gives strong precedence for something like Q in that Matthew himself would originally have been interested only in the sayings of Jesus.

77Nevertheless, if Q were more than one document, the fragmentary nature of the agrapha makes them a very close parallel indeed!

78 Once the gospels were produced, why would anyone want to make copies of Q? If not, then the most recent copies of Q would have been from the first century. And since we have no extant New Testament MSS from the first century, why should we expect copies of Q to survive?

79Stein, Synoptic Problem, 113-14.

80Ibid., 114. The divergences are due to the very definitions involved.

81Ibid., 116. Stein quotes Streeter to the same effect: “. . . it would have been quite impossible for two persons to abbreviate practically every paragraph in the whole of Mark without concurring in a large number of their omissions.”

82Stein, Synoptic Problem, 119-20.

83The first and third points are mentioned by Stein, 120.

84Cf. Stein, Synoptic Problem, 121, for more examples.

85Ibid., 122.

86I am reminded here of the very few places where the Byzantine text has a better claim to originality than does the Alexandrian text (cf., e.g., the v.l. at Phil 1:14). If, on occasion, the Byzantine does claim to be original, this in no way overthrows the whole weight of evidence either against its general inferiority or its secondary nature as a texttype dependent on Alexandrian and Western traditions.

87A point already strongly made by Streeter, The Four Gospels, 306.

88Stein, Synoptic Problem, 125.

89Literally hundreds of places can be found in the synoptics where scribes harmonized one gospel with another.

90Our earlier comment about textual corruption also does not help out in this regard, for if neither Matthew nor Luke had a perfect copy of Mark to work from, then they did not have identical copies. Actually, if textual corruption took place before Matthew and Luke produced their literary works, this would produce disharmony between them, not harmony—except, of course, in predictable variations. But this does not explain most of the significant agreements.

91We have listed it separately because (1) Stein lists it separately, and he is more agnostic about the make-up of Q; and (2) this highlights oral tradition as a possible source of minor agreements—especially if one is predisposed to seeing Q as a written source, but does not care to read the contents of each paragraph.

92Stein, Synoptic Problem, 127, has also noticed it, but has shut it up to overlapping oral traditions.

93One could appeal to textual corruption in this case, for a number of Caesarean MSS insert into Mark’s account, “you have said that” in front of “I am.” But this is not only a harmonization to Matthew’s account, but lacks serious external support.

94One other passage has plagued me over the years, though it is not found in the triple tradition. In Mark 15:39 the centurion at the foot of the cross claims that “surely this man was a/the Son of God.” In Luke’s parallel account (23:47) we read instead, “surely this man was righteous.” On the face of it, Mark’s Christology (on the lips of the centurion) is higher than Luke’s, suggesting that Mark borrowed from Luke, not vice versa. But there are three considerations which might explain the phenomena: (1) Mark’s expression is ambiguous: ‘a son of God’ might indeed be a lower Christology than ‘righteous’; (2) ‘Son of God’ in Mark seems to be a functional category equivalent to “righteous,” rather than an ontological statement of Christ’s Deity; (3) as we have mentioned before, Luke’s Christology seems to build toward a crescendo, culminating in the middle of Acts; hence, to follow Mark’s wording here might well “let the cat out of the bag” before Luke, in his literary purposes, intended to do so.

95 This date, of course, is not adopted by all. I will try to defend it in a later paper.

96What is most remarkable in this regard is to note certain authors who believe that the synoptics were written pre-70, but that John was written in the 90s. The vast bulk of NT scholars who date John in the 90s (or later) do so because they date the synoptics in the 80s.

Related Topics: Bibliology (The Written Word), Gospels

The “Temple of God” in 2 Thessalonians 2:4: Literal or Metaphorical?

Related Media

In 2 Thess 2:4, Paul speaks of the antichrist as follows: “He1 opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, and as a result he takes his seat2 in God’s temple, displaying himself as God3” (NET NT).

The question that concerns us is: What exactly is “God’s temple”—the ναὸς θεοῦ. The expression is used in the LXX only a handful of times (Daniel 5:3; 1 Esdras 5:52, 55; Judith 4:2; 5:18).4 The broader idiom of οἶκος θεοῦ (or κυρίου), however, occurs more frequently (e.g., 1 Chron 28:12, 21; 29:2, 7; 2 Chron 3:3; 4:11; 5:14; 7:5; 15:18; 22:12; 23:3, 9; 24:5, 7, 13; 25:24; 28:24; 31:13; 32:21; 34:9; 36:18; Ezra 1:4, 7; 3:9; 6:3, 5, 7, 17; 8:17, 25, 30, 33; 9:9; Neh 10:33, 34). The underlying Hebrew is typically בית אלהימ. As near as I can tell (from a cursory observation), every time either expression is used the literal sense is meant.

In the NT, the situation at first glance seems decidedly different. Matthew 26:21 is the only undisputed reference to a literal temple, though even here the apparently dislocated parallel in John 2:21 turns the statement into a reference to the bodily resurrection of Jesus. I would argue that in Matthew the referent is still literal, for the Synoptics are far more pedestrian in their descriptive powers than is the fourth evangelist.

My Accordance/Gramcord search revealed altogether ten places in which ναὸς θεοῦ occurred (Matt 26:61; 1 Cor 3:16, 17 [bis]; 2 Cor 6:16 [bis]; 2 Thess 2:4; Rev 3:12; 11:1, 19).

As well, there are another six instances of οἶκος θεοῦ, and here again a similar development occurs: The gospels refer to the literal temple (Mark 2:26 and pars. in Matt 12:4 and Luke 6:4), while the referential value of the expression has been transferred to the church by the 60s (1 Tim 3:15;5 Heb 6:21; 1 Pet 4:17).6

What are we to make of these data? It seems that by 63 CE (the date I would assign to 1 Timothy),7 the idiom had shifted in Christian usage sufficiently that a metaphorical nuance had become the norm. However, it is equally significant that all of the references in the Corinthian correspondence seem to require an explanation (readily supplied by Paul) in order to make the metaphorical sense clear.  Thus, for Paul at least, one might chart his development as follows:

  • 50 CE—literal notion is still in view (2 Thess 2:4)
  • mid-50s—metaphorical notion is developed, but the shift has to be made explicit
  • 60s—metaphorical notion is clearly in place, requiring no explicit referential clue for this meaning.

To sum up the evidence so far: it’s not that 2 Thess 2:4 cannot have the metaphorical notion in view, but rather that on a trajectory of Pauline thought such a possibility seems less likely than a literal temple.

At the same time, the triple reference to the Thessalonians’ knowledge in this ‘little apocalypse’ (2 Thess 2:1-12)—i.e., in 2:5 and 6 where Paul ‘reminds’ them of what he had ‘told’ them and that they ‘know’—may well imply that they were privy to some information that outsiders were not. Certainly the oblique reference to the ‘restraining thing/restrainer’ in vv. 6-7 fits well with such a view and opens up the possibility that Paul had given further information to the church—perhaps even that the ‘temple’ was metaphorical—that is now only guessed at.

Since Paul does not use ναός outside of 2 Thessalonians, Ephesians, and 1-2 Corinthians, it is difficult to assess whether there was any theological development in this area or not. However, I would argue that there is an analogous development in Paul’s thought that supports the literal notion in 2 Thess 2:4. Paul’s use of κεφαλή with reference to the church is quite different between Ephesians and 1 Corinthians. In 1 Corinthians 12:21 κεφαλή is used metaphorically of a member of the church (“The eye cannot say to the hand, ‘I don’t need you!’ Nor the head to the feet, ‘I don’t need you!’”). But within a decade, Paul had begun to use κεφαλή in such collocations exclusively of Christ (cf. Eph 1:22; 4:15; 5:23; Col 1:18). My guess is that as he dwelt on Christ’s authority over the man (1 Cor 11), he began to see broader implications. This then developed in terms of the scope of Christ’s authority (over the church and even over the whole cosmos [Col 2:10]) and in terms of metaphorical identification of the “head” in relation to the body. Even though Paul would again speak of κεφαλή in relation to the body of Christ and in relation to spiritual gifts (thus paralleling 1 Cor 12), he now used the term deliberately and consciously of Christ alone.

What does this have to do with “temple of God”? Three things: (1) There seem to be lines of development within the corpus Paulinum of referential transference in Paul’s ecclesiological terminology;8 (2) the key period for such development is the mid-50s; (3) once Paul applied such metaphorical language to the rich and complex realities of ἐν Χριστῷ, he did not return to his former referential values.

I have not yet looked at the intertestamental literature on “temple of God,” nor Judaica, Philo, etc. I suspect that even if such sources used the phrase literally, it would prove nothing because the NT has some distinctive developments as to where God’s glory resides (from the templeChristbody of Christ). Patristic usage, however, is full of illustrations—from Ignatius to Chrysostom—of metaphorical values (see Lampe’s Patristic Lexicon).

In conclusion, we are on much surer ground if we see the literal temple referenced in 2 Thess 2:4. If so, then it seems that such may well be rebuilt. Thus, when the antichrist sits on the mercy seat, claiming to be God, he will have culminated a long line of multiple and partial fulfillments of Daniel's prophecy, beginning with Antiochus Epiphanes. Let the reader beware.


1tn Grk “the one who opposes,” describing the figure in v. 3. A new sentence was started here in the translation by supplying the personal pronoun (“he”) and translating the participle ἀντικείμενος as a finite verb.

2sn Allusions to Isa 14:13-14; Dan 11:36; Ezek 28:2-9.

3tn Grk “that he is God.”

4 The rare variant forms ναίως or νεώς do not occur with θεοῦ.

5 An interesting connection involves μυστήριον with “temple of God” in 2 Thess 2:4; a similar collocation occurs in 1 Tim 3:15-16. Whether both these texts are discussing something similar is a different matter.

6 Cf. also 2 Cor 5:1 where οἰκία is used in close proximity to θεοῦ, though this expression never occurs in the LXX. Incidentally, I found no instances of ἱερὸν θεοῦ/κυρίου in either the LXX or the NT.

7 If we count the usage of ναός in Eph 2:21—and if this is a genuinely Pauline letter (which I would affirm)—then a date as early as 60 CE is suggested. But even this reference is self-consciously metaphorical.

8 This, of course, can also be seen in his ascription of ἅγιος to believers in his salutations—something not done until his Corinthian correspondence. There are other trajectories that one can see in Paul as well, but these examples will have to suffice for now.

Related Topics: Eschatology (Things to Come)

Pages