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Content On: Grammar

Articles:

TitleAuthor
Easter [2010]: Why Be a Christian? (Acts 3:11-26)Steven Cole09/19/2013
Single Prepositions With Multiple Objects In Matthew 3:11 And John 3:5: An Exegetical Argument Running Amok?James Davis08/30/2013
Ki/gar and waw/kai are often markers and not words to be translatedFred Karlson05/11/2010
Reexamining "and the justifier" in Rom 3:26Daniel B. Wallace09/28/2009
Romans 2:27 in the NET BibleDaniel B. Wallace07/07/2009
A Brief Word Study on ΣκύβαλονDaniel B. Wallace10/01/2007
Infinitives in Aconjunctive Structural Parallel in the NT: What Do They Mean?Daniel B. Wallace08/15/2007
What Did the Prophets Know about Christ? A Brief Look at 1 Peter 1:11Daniel B. Wallace03/14/2007
1 Peter 2.2 - "pure spiritual milk" or "pure milk of the word"?Daniel B. Wallace02/20/2007
The Syntax of Romans 3:22-24 Part 1Daniel B. Wallace10/09/2006
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Question & Answers:

Questions
How does the Greek verb in Acts 13:48 either support or refute predestination?
Why doesn't the translation of the genitive in Mark 11:22 use the word of? How is theology used to translate this verse?
Jehovah Witnesses say that the Holy Spirit isn't a person because of the neuter gender in Greek. Can you respond?
Do you think it still OK to read the KJV along with your NET Bible?
I have taught that the definite articles in John 14:6, "...the way, the truth and the life..." constituted "one of a kind" or "unique" articles. However, John 14:6 is not as an example of this use in your grammar. What kind of articles are they?
In Ephesians 4:11 where Paul links pastor-teacher, is this a valid link due to the "kai"? Some say that there are exceptions to this rule and that pastor and teacher can be seperated in this verse. Does the exception apply to this verse?
I heard that Hebrew language had no means of determining past, present, or future tense. Could the prophecies in the OT possibly refer to past and future events simultaneously?
Is The word “foreknowledge” In Acts 2:23 in the instrumental dative case? Does foreknowledge mean omniscience, or is it an attribute of God?
Does the Greek construction in Acts 2:38 show that baptism has nothing to do with the remission of sins?