|Romans 8:18 and 1Pet chapter 4 seem to imply Christians should rejoice in our suffering because of the sympathy towards the suffering of Jesus, and some how that is related to Glory. When Christians suffer how is that immediately glorious?
|How were Matthew, Mark, Luke and John named and can you tell me something about the authors of these books?
|If you say you believe in the inspiration of the original manuscripts, does this mean you do not believe this carries over to our English translations?
|Why are there disagreements on the interpretation of various passages of Scripture?
|What is the difference between verbal plenary inerrancy and non-verbal plenary inerrancy?
|Why are some books missing from the KJV?
|Why does the Protestant Bible have 66 books and the Catholic Bible have 73?
|What Bible translations were available before the KJV?
|Is the claim correct that many early translations and writings of the church fathers show they are in support of the Byzantine text?
|Godly men such as Jack Hyles claim that modern translations are corrupt and based on inferior manuscripts. Are his arguments incorrect?